National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) Quiz: Equipment Contraindications
20 questions · exam conditions
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Equipment ContraindicationsQuestion 1 of 20

A 35-year-old patient with a complete T4 spinal cord injury has developed significant bilateral hip and knee flexion contractures (20 degrees at each joint) from prolonged sitting. The patient has been ordered a standing frame for home use to provide weight-bearing and stretching.

The use of a standard sit-to-stand or upright standing frame is contraindicated for this patient until what prerequisite is met?

The patient's hip and knee flexion contractures are reduced to less than 10 degrees.
The patient's orthostatic hypotension is managed with medication and abdominal binders.
The patient demonstrates the upper body strength to independently operate the device.
The patient has a bone mineral density scan to rule out severe osteoporosis.
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National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) Quiz

National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) Quiz: Equipment Contraindications

Practice Equipment Contraindications in National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Equipment Contraindications, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE).

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

A 35-year-old patient with a complete T4 spinal cord injury has developed significant bilateral hip and knee flexion contractures (20 degrees at each joint) from prolonged sitting. The patient has been ordered a standing frame for home use to provide weight-bearing and stretching.

The use of a standard sit-to-stand or upright standing frame is contraindicated for this patient until what prerequisite is met?

  1. The patient's hip and knee flexion contractures are reduced to less than 10 degrees. (correct answer)
  2. The patient's orthostatic hypotension is managed with medication and abdominal binders.
  3. The patient demonstrates the upper body strength to independently operate the device.
  4. The patient has a bone mineral density scan to rule out severe osteoporosis.
Explanation: When you encounter questions about standing frames for patients with spinal cord injuries, always consider the biomechanical requirements first. Standing frames require the body to achieve and maintain a relatively straight alignment from ankles to hips to safely distribute weight-bearing forces. The correct answer is A because significant flexion contractures create a fundamental mechanical problem. With 20-degree hip and knee contractures, this patient cannot achieve the neutral joint positioning required for safe standing frame use. The contractures would create abnormal stress concentrations at the joints, potentially causing injury to soft tissues, and would prevent proper weight distribution through the skeletal system. Most standing frame protocols require contractures to be reduced to less than 10 degrees before initiating standing activities to ensure safe biomechanical alignment. Answer B is incorrect because while orthostatic hypotension is a consideration for spinal cord injury patients, it can be managed during standing frame activities through gradual positioning and doesn't represent an absolute contraindication. Answer C is wrong because standing frames are designed to accommodate varying levels of upper body strength, and assistance can be provided as needed. Answer D is incorrect because while osteoporosis screening is important for long-term bone health management, it's not a prerequisite for standing frame use, and the weight-bearing provided by standing frames actually helps maintain bone density. Remember: For NPTE questions about assistive devices, always prioritize biomechanical safety requirements over secondary medical considerations. The device must fit the patient's current physical limitations before addressing other health factors.

Question 2

A 75-year-old male with severe peripheral neuropathy secondary to chemotherapy is being evaluated for an assistive device for community ambulation. He has markedly impaired proprioception and light touch sensation in both feet. His strength is 4/5 globally in the lower extremities, and he has good cognitive function. He reports feeling very unsteady and has had several near-falls.

Which of the following assistive devices would be MOST contraindicated for this patient?

  1. A single-point cane held in the dominant hand. (correct answer)
  2. A rolling walker with large wheels and hand brakes.
  3. A standard walker with fixed legs.
  4. Bilateral Lofstrand crutches set to the appropriate height.
Explanation: When evaluating assistive devices for patients with severe peripheral neuropathy, you must prioritize stability and support. This patient's markedly impaired proprioception and light touch sensation create significant balance deficits, making him prone to falls despite adequate strength. A single-point cane (A) provides minimal stability and requires good balance and proprioceptive feedback to use safely. Since this patient has severely compromised sensation in both feet and reports feeling "very unsteady," a cane would be inadequate and potentially dangerous. The narrow base of support actually increases fall risk in someone with significant sensory deficits. A rolling walker with large wheels and hand brakes (B) offers excellent stability with a wide base of support and allows for continuous contact during ambulation. The large wheels provide smooth movement over various surfaces, while hand brakes ensure control. This would be highly appropriate for community ambulation. A standard walker with fixed legs (C) provides maximum stability through its wide base and requires the user to lift and place it with each step. While slower than a rolling walker, it offers substantial support for someone with balance issues. Bilateral Lofstrand crutches (D) provide good stability through two points of contact and allow for various gait patterns. They're appropriate for someone with adequate upper body strength and can accommodate the balance challenges from neuropathy. For NPTE questions about assistive devices, always match the level of support to the patient's specific deficits. Sensory impairments require devices with wider bases of support and greater stability than strength deficits alone.

Question 3

A patient with a transfemoral amputation has a 25-degree hip flexion contracture on the amputated side. The patient has been fitted with a quadrilateral socket prosthesis and is beginning gait training. The therapist notes that the patient exhibits significant lumbar lordosis during the stance phase.

Prosthetic gait training with the current socket design is relatively contraindicated for this patient because:

  1. the ischial seat of the quadrilateral socket will cause skin breakdown due to the contracture.
  2. the hip flexion contracture prevents the patient from achieving the necessary hip extension for forward propulsion.
  3. the quadrilateral socket design cannot accommodate the hip flexion contracture, forcing a compensatory lumbar lordosis. (correct answer)
  4. the patient lacks the gluteus medius strength required to stabilize the pelvis with this socket design.
Explanation: The correct answer is C. A standard prosthetic socket is built with an initial degree of flexion to facilitate muscle function and normal gait. However, it cannot accommodate a large, fixed 25-degree hip flexion contracture. To get the prosthesis vertical for stance and advance the body over the foot, the patient must compensate for the lack of hip extension by tilting the pelvis anteriorly and increasing lumbar lordosis. This compensatory movement is forced by the mismatch between the patient's contracture and the prosthesis alignment. Continued gait training under these conditions is contraindicated because it reinforces a pathological gait pattern and places excessive chronic strain on the lumbar spine, leading to low back pain and potential structural changes. The contracture must be addressed before prosthetic fitting or the socket must be modified to accommodate it. A is incorrect because while skin breakdown is a risk, the primary biomechanical contraindication is the forced compensation at the lumbar spine. B is incorrect because it describes the impairment (lack of hip extension) but not why the device is contraindicated. The device's inability to accommodate this impairment is the key issue. D is incorrect because while gluteus medius strength is important, the observed lordosis is a direct result of the sagittal plane contracture, not frontal plane weakness.

Question 4

A patient is receiving physical therapy 3 days after a total knee arthroplasty. The plan of care includes the use of a continuous passive motion (CPM) machine. The patient's medical chart indicates a new diagnosis of acute deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the contralateral, non-operative limb, for which anticoagulation was initiated 12 hours ago. The patient is hemodynamically stable.

What is the MOST appropriate action for the physical therapist regarding the use of the CPM machine on the operative limb?

  1. Proceed with the CPM as prescribed, as it is on the uninvolved limb and may help with DVT prevention.
  2. Withhold CPM use and consult with the medical team due to the risk of embolization from the contralateral DVT. (correct answer)
  3. Use the CPM machine but limit the range of motion to less than 45 degrees of flexion to minimize systemic effects.
  4. Apply a compression wrap to the operative limb before placing it in the CPM to mitigate any potential swelling.
Explanation: The correct answer is B. The presence of a known, acute DVT is a significant systemic condition. While the CPM is applied to the operative limb, any activity that significantly increases circulation or systemic movement could theoretically dislodge the thrombus in the contralateral limb, leading to a pulmonary embolism. Because the anticoagulation was initiated only 12 hours ago, the clot is not yet stable or adherent to the vessel wall. This situation represents a relative to absolute contraindication for initiating new mobilization activities, including CPM, without explicit clearance from the managing physician. The therapist's primary responsibility is patient safety, which requires interprofessional consultation. A is incorrect because it misinterprets the risk. The concern is not about preventing a new DVT but about embolizing the existing one. Applying a device that passively moves a large joint on a patient with a fresh DVT is a safety risk. C is incorrect because limiting the range of motion does not negate the fundamental risk of dislodging the existing thrombus. The systemic circulatory effects are not linearly related to the range of motion in a way that would make this a safe modification. D is incorrect because applying a compression wrap is irrelevant to the primary contraindication, which is the risk of pulmonary embolism from the contralateral DVT.

Question 5

A 30-year-old male sustained a complete C5 spinal cord injury. He is working on functional mobility and has been fitted with a wrist-hand orthosis (WHO) with a universal cuff to assist with feeding and grooming. The therapist notes that the patient's passive wrist extension range of motion is limited to 15 degrees due to developing flexor tightness.

What is the primary contraindication to continued use of this specific orthosis for functional tasks?

  1. The orthosis will prevent the development of a functional tenodesis grip. (correct answer)
  2. The universal cuff is too bulky for fine motor tasks like grooming.
  3. The patient lacks the necessary shoulder and elbow strength to use the device effectively.
  4. The orthosis provides wrist support but does not address finger flexion contractures.
Explanation: The correct answer is A. A functional tenodesis grip is a critical compensatory strategy for individuals with C6 and some C5 level injuries. It relies on active wrist extension to create passive finger flexion, allowing for grasp. This requires maintaining relative tightness in the long finger flexors. The wrist-hand orthosis (WHO), by holding the wrist in a neutral or slightly extended position and strapping the fingers down, completely blocks the biomechanics of tenodesis. Its continued use is contraindicated because it will stretch out the finger flexors, preventing the patient from ever developing this crucial functional skill. The goal should be to promote tenodesis, not block it with a device. B is incorrect because while bulkiness may be a limitation, it is not a contraindication that prevents the development of a lifelong functional skill. C is incorrect because a patient with C5 SCI has functional deltoids, biceps, and brachioradialis, which is sufficient to bring the hand to the mouth for feeding, making this a plausible but incorrect reason. D is incorrect because while the orthosis doesn't address finger flexion contractures, its primary contraindication is actively working against the development of a key functional pattern (tenodesis). The tightness is actually beneficial if harnessed correctly.

Question 6

A 62-year-old female with a history of severe osteoporosis (T-score of -3.5) sustained a stable L2 compression fracture after a minor fall. She is experiencing significant pain with transitional movements. The physician has prescribed a rigid, three-point pressure orthosis.

Which type of orthosis is MOST likely contraindicated for this patient, despite being commonly used for stable thoracolumbar fractures?

  1. Taylor-Knight brace.
  2. Molded thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO).
  3. Jewett hyperextension brace. (correct answer)
  4. Corset-style lumbosacral orthosis (LSO).
Explanation: The correct answer is C. A Jewett hyperextension brace operates on a three-point pressure system designed to prevent flexion. It applies posteriorly directed forces at the sternum and pubis, and an anteriorly directed force over the thoracic spine. In a patient with severe osteoporosis, these high-pressure points, particularly the sternal pad, create a significant risk of iatrogenic fractures (e.g., sternal or rib fractures). The brace's mechanism of action is contraindicated by the bone fragility of the patient. The risk of causing a new fracture to treat an existing one is unacceptably high. A is incorrect because a Taylor-Knight brace provides more global restriction of motion without the same high-pressure points as a Jewett brace, making it a safer, though less common, option. B is incorrect because a custom-molded TLSO distributes pressure over a much larger surface area, reducing peak pressures and making it a much safer and more appropriate choice for a patient with osteoporosis. D is incorrect because a corset-style LSO is a less rigid device that provides kinesthetic feedback and some support but would not provide enough stabilization for the fracture. It is ineffective rather than contraindicated.

Question 7

A physical therapist is treating a 72-year-old female with severe, chronic lymphedema of the right lower extremity, classified as Stage 3. Her medical history includes peripheral arterial disease (PAD) with an ankle-brachial index (ABI) of 0.6, congestive heart failure (CHF) with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%, and controlled type 2 diabetes.

The plan of care includes complete decongestive therapy. Which component of this therapy, involving a specific device, is ABSOLUTELY contraindicated for this patient?

  1. Application of low-stretch compression bandages with carefully managed pressure gradients.
  2. Manual lymphatic drainage directed toward intact regional lymph nodes.
  3. Use of an intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) pump with pressures exceeding 45 mmHg. (correct answer)
  4. Instruction in a meticulous skin care regimen to prevent cellulitis.
Explanation: The correct answer is C. The use of an intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) pump is absolutely contraindicated in patients with severe peripheral arterial disease, typically defined by an ABI < 0.8. This patient's ABI of 0.6 indicates moderate to severe arterial insufficiency. Applying external compression, especially at pressures like 45 mmHg, can overcome the patient's arterial pressure, leading to tissue ischemia, necrosis, and potential limb loss. Furthermore, the patient's decompensated CHF (LVEF 35%) is another strong relative to absolute contraindication, as the fluid mobilization from the limb can overwhelm the already failing heart, precipitating acute pulmonary edema. A is incorrect because low-stretch bandaging, when applied skillfully by a certified lymphedema therapist, can often be used with caution in patients with mixed venous/arterial disease and lymphedema. The pressure is carefully controlled and monitored. It is not absolutely contraindicated in the same way as an IPC pump. B is incorrect because manual lymphatic drainage is a core, indicated component of CDT and does not pose a risk to the arterial system or the heart in the way that aggressive, unregulated mechanical compression does. D is incorrect because a skin care regimen is a critical and indicated part of lymphedema management, not a contraindication.

Question 8

A 22-year-old athlete sustained an unstable anterior shoulder dislocation and underwent a surgical Bankart repair 4 weeks ago. The patient is currently in a sling and is beginning active-assisted range of motion exercises. The surgeon's protocol strictly prohibits combined abduction and external rotation.

The physical therapist is considering using a shoulder pulley system to facilitate glenohumeral flexion and abduction in the sagittal plane. Why might this device be contraindicated at this stage of rehabilitation?

  1. The device encourages excessive scapular elevation rather than true glenohumeral motion.
  2. The device can inadvertently allow the humerus to drift into external rotation and horizontal abduction at higher ranges of elevation. (correct answer)
  3. The patient does not have sufficient rotator cuff strength to control the movement, risking superior humeral head migration.
  4. The pulley system places a valgus force on the elbow joint, which is not indicated after shoulder surgery.
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Shoulder pulleys, while useful for passive and active-assisted elevation, allow for significant compensatory and uncontrolled movements. As the patient pulls down with the uninvolved arm to elevate the surgical arm, it is very difficult to maintain pure sagittal plane flexion or frontal plane abduction. The path of least resistance often involves a combination of movements, and as the arm elevates, it can easily drift into the contraindicated position of horizontal abduction and external rotation, stressing the anterior capsule and the Bankart repair. This lack of precise control makes the device a significant safety risk and a relative contraindication at this early, protective phase of recovery. A is incorrect because while scapular elevation is a common compensatory strategy, it does not directly stress the surgical repair and is a problem of movement quality, not a contraindication that risks re-injury. C is incorrect because the pulley is an active-assistive device intended for patients with weak rotator cuffs. The issue is not the lack of strength but the lack of control over the plane of motion. D is incorrect because a shoulder pulley system does not place a significant valgus force on the elbow.

Question 9

A patient with a transfemoral amputation is being fitted with a new prosthesis. The residual limb is short and has significant soft tissue redundancy. The patient also has a history of ischemic heart disease and reports getting fatigued easily. The prosthetist is considering different suspension options.

Which of the following suspension systems is MOST contraindicated for this patient?

  1. Total elastic suspension (TES) belt.
  2. Roll-on locking liner with a pin mechanism.
  3. Suction suspension with a one-way valve. (correct answer)
  4. Silesian bandage or belt.
Explanation: The correct answer is C. Suction suspension (either total or partial) requires a precise, intimate fit between the socket and the residual limb to maintain negative pressure. A short residual limb with significant soft tissue redundancy makes achieving and maintaining this intimate fit extremely difficult. The redundant tissue can be drawn into the valve (pistoning) and the short lever arm provides less surface area for suspension, leading to frequent loss of suction and prosthesis failure. This makes it a significant contraindication based on the limb characteristics alone. Furthermore, donning a suction socket requires significant strength, balance, and dexterity, which may be challenging for a patient with ischemic heart disease and easy fatigability. A is incorrect because a TES belt is a common auxiliary suspension used when other methods are insufficient. It is often indicated for short residual limbs as it provides suspension over the pelvis. B is incorrect because a locking liner can be a viable option. While the redundant tissue can sometimes be problematic, it is generally a more forgiving system than suction for limbs with volume fluctuation or less-than-ideal shape. D is incorrect because a Silesian belt is another auxiliary suspension system that wraps around the pelvis. Like the TES belt, it is often indicated for short or difficult-to-fit residual limbs, not contraindicated.

Question 10

A physical therapist is working with an 80-year-old resident of a skilled nursing facility who has severe dementia, is non-ambulatory, and has a history of a Stage III pressure injury over the sacrum. The patient is seated in a standard sling-back wheelchair for most of the day. The therapist is recommending a new seating system.

Which of the following seating components is MOST contraindicated for this patient?

  1. A solid seat insert to correct the hammock effect of the sling upholstery.
  2. A gel-based pressure-relieving cushion to redistribute pressure under the ischial tuberosities.
  3. A ring or donut-type cushion to elevate the sacral region completely. (correct answer)
  4. A custom-molded back support to accommodate a fixed kyphoscoliosis.
Explanation: The correct answer is C. Ring or donut-type cushions are absolutely contraindicated for pressure injury prevention and management. While they appear to offload a specific area, they create a concentric ring of high pressure around the opening, which severely impairs blood flow and lymphatic drainage to the central tissue. This 'tourniquet effect' can significantly worsen existing pressure injuries or create new ones in the surrounding tissue. This is a widely recognized and critical safety contraindication in wound care and seating. A is incorrect because a solid seat insert is indicated to provide a stable base of support and prevent the poor pelvic positioning (posterior pelvic tilt) caused by a sling seat, which contributes to sacral pressure. B is incorrect because a pressure-relieving cushion (gel, air, foam) is the standard of care and is strongly indicated to redistribute pressure and reduce the risk of further skin breakdown. D is incorrect because a custom-molded back support is indicated to accommodate fixed postural deformities, improve overall pressure distribution, and enhance comfort and stability.

Question 11

A 50-year-old male with a new transtibial amputation secondary to trauma has a well-healed, cylindrical residual limb. He is very active and wishes to return to hiking. He has been fitted with a prosthesis using a gel liner and a pin-locking suspension system. After one week of use, he reports that the prosthesis feels loose and rotates on his limb during pivot movements.

The prosthetist confirms rotational instability. Given the patient's activity goals and limb shape, the use of the pin-locking system is proving to be a relative contraindication primarily because it:

  1. adds excessive weight to the distal end of the prosthesis, increasing energy expenditure.
  2. fails to provide adequate control of transverse plane forces in a cylindrical limb. (correct answer)
  3. creates a high risk of skin breakdown at the distal end of the residual limb.
  4. requires significant cognitive ability and hand dexterity to don and doff properly.
Explanation: The correct answer is B. A pin-locking system provides excellent resistance to vertical (distal traction) forces but offers very poor rotational control. The suspension is localized to a single point at the distal end. On a cylindrical or round residual limb, which lacks bony contours to grip the socket, the prosthesis can easily spin around this single pivot point, especially during activities involving turning or uneven terrain like hiking. This rotational instability makes the pin-lock system a relative contraindication for active users with cylindrical limbs who require robust control in all planes of motion. A suspension system that engages more of the limb surface area, like suction or a suspension sleeve, would be more appropriate. A is incorrect because while the pin lock adds some weight, it is not excessive compared to other components and is not the primary reason for its contraindication in this scenario. C is incorrect because skin breakdown from pistoning (vertical movement) is a risk with pin-lock systems, but the primary problem described here is rotation, not pistoning. The limb shape does not inherently increase this risk over other shapes. D is incorrect because this patient is young, active, and has no reported cognitive or dexterity issues. Donning the device is not the contraindication.

Question 12

A 6-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy ambulates with a significant crouch gait pattern, characterized by excessive hip flexion, knee flexion, and ankle dorsiflexion throughout the stance phase. The child is currently using solid ankle-foot orthoses (AFOs).

The physical therapist observes that the crouch gait has worsened since the child began wearing the solid AFOs. The solid AFOs are most likely contraindicated in this case because they:

  1. limit the development of active dorsiflexion strength needed for swing clearance.
  2. create an excessive knee extension moment, forcing a compensatory increase in hip and knee flexion.
  3. prevent plantar flexion at initial contact, leading to an overpowering knee flexion moment. (correct answer)
  4. are too heavy for the child, causing increased energy expenditure and subsequent postural collapse.
Explanation: The correct answer is C. A crouch gait is driven by weak plantar flexors/soleus and often tight hamstrings. During normal gait, plantar flexion at initial contact and the subsequent rocker function of the foot-ankle complex help to create a knee extension moment. A solid AFO, by holding the ankle in a fixed position (typically neutral), prevents this critical plantar flexion. When the foot hits the ground flat, the ground reaction force passes posterior to the knee joint, creating a powerful knee flexion moment. To prevent collapse, the child must activate their quadriceps more strongly, but this often results in a more flexed, crouched posture. The solid AFO, therefore, is biomechanically contraindicated as it exacerbates the primary gait deviation. A is incorrect because while solid AFOs do restrict active motion, the primary contraindication here is the negative effect on stance phase biomechanics, not swing phase muscle development. B is incorrect because a solid AFO creates a knee flexion moment, not an extension moment. This is the core of the problem. D is incorrect because while weight is a factor, the primary reason for the worsening crouch is the adverse biomechanical effect of the AFO design, which is a more direct and significant contraindication.

Question 13

A 70-year-old male with post-polio syndrome presents with profound quadriceps weakness (2/5) and a severe, progressive genu recurvatum deformity in his right knee. He is currently using a Swedish knee cage, but his knee continues to hyperextend, and he reports increasing posterior knee pain and instability, leading to falls.

The continued use of the Swedish knee cage is MOST likely contraindicated because:

  1. it fails to provide the necessary mediolateral stability for the knee joint.
  2. the three-point pressure system is insufficient to control the hyperextension forces generated by a 2/5 quadriceps.
  3. the device allows for compensatory ankle motion, which negates its effect at the knee.
  4. the forces required to control the recurvatum are now exceeding the structural integrity of the soft tissues and the device's capacity. (correct answer)
Explanation: The correct answer is D. A Swedish knee cage is a lightweight orthosis designed for mild to moderate genu recurvatum. In a patient with post-polio syndrome, the recurvatum is a result of using the posterior capsule and ligaments for stability in the absence of quadriceps strength. As the weakness progresses, the recurvatum worsens, and the forces placed on the posterior structures become immense. The lightweight Swedish knee cage is simply not strong enough to counteract these forces. Its continued use is contraindicated because it provides a false sense of security while failing to prevent the microtrauma that is stretching the posterior capsule, increasing pain, and leading to progressive deformity and instability. The device is no longer appropriate for the severity of the condition. A is incorrect because while the Swedish knee cage provides little mediolateral support, the primary problem described is the failure to control sagittal plane (hyperextension) forces. B is incorrect because the recurvatum is due to the lack of quadriceps strength (the patient locks back on their ligaments), not the force generated by the weak muscle itself. This is a common misunderstanding of the biomechanics. C is incorrect because ankle motion is not the primary driver of the instability in this case; it is the severe quadriceps weakness and reliance on the posterior structures of the knee.

Question 14

A 28-year-old rock climber is being fitted for a body-powered transradial prosthesis. The patient has a very short residual limb (30% of original forearm length) and wishes to use a voluntary-opening terminal device. The therapist is considering a harness system.

Which type of harness would be MOST contraindicated for this patient?

  1. A figure-of-eight harness to provide secure anchoring and force generation. (correct answer)
  2. A chest strap with an oversized axilla loop for increased comfort.
  3. A supra-olecranon self-suspending socket to reduce the need for a harness.
  4. A figure-of-nine harness with a single control cable for the terminal device.
Explanation: The correct answer is A. A standard figure-of-eight harness for a transradial prosthesis relies on glenohumeral flexion to operate the terminal device. However, a key component of this harness is the suspension portion, which includes an inverted 'Y' suspensor and cuff that encircles the proximal forearm. On a very short transradial limb (30%), this cuff has insufficient surface area and limb length to provide adequate suspension. The prosthesis would slip off easily during functional use, especially when lifting or carrying objects. The short lever arm makes the suspension provided by a standard figure-of-eight harness ineffective, rendering it contraindicated. A different suspension strategy, such as a supra-olecranon socket or supracondylar socket with auxiliary suspension, is required. B is incorrect as a chest strap is often an addition to a harness to improve suspension and comfort, not a contraindicated primary system. C is incorrect because a self-suspending socket is an alternative to a harness and is often indicated for short residual limbs as it uses the bony anatomy of the elbow for suspension. It is not a harness type. D is incorrect because a figure-of-nine harness is primarily used when the socket itself provides suspension (like the supra-olecranon design). It is simply the control cable portion and is not contraindicated; rather, it's used in conjunction with an appropriate socket.

Question 15

A 48-year-old male is being treated in an acute care setting after a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He is extremely deconditioned and requires a mechanical lift for all transfers. He has a productive cough and is currently being treated for pneumonia. The plan of care includes using a tilt table to begin acclimation to upright positioning.

The use of a tilt table is MOST likely contraindicated at this time due to which of the following factors?

  1. The patient's dependence on a mechanical lift indicates insufficient strength for upright tolerance.
  2. The risk of orthostatic hypotension is too great in a patient with severe deconditioning.
  3. The supine-to-upright positioning may impair the mobilization and clearance of pulmonary secretions.
  4. The compressive straps of the tilt table will restrict accessory muscle use and increase the work of breathing. (correct answer)
Explanation: The correct answer is D. Patients with a severe COPD exacerbation rely heavily on accessory muscles of respiration in the neck and shoulder girdle to assist with breathing. To use a tilt table safely, wide straps must be secured firmly across the chest and pelvis to prevent the patient from falling. The chest strap, in particular, is a direct contraindication as it mechanically restricts the very accessory muscles the patient needs to breathe, effectively pinning the chest wall. This can dramatically increase the work of breathing, precipitate respiratory distress, and lead to CO2 retention in a patient with already compromised pulmonary function. A is incorrect because a tilt table is specifically designed for patients who lack the strength for upright positioning. This is an indication, not a contraindication. B is incorrect because while orthostatic hypotension is a risk, it is a precaution that can be managed by progressing the angle of elevation slowly and monitoring vital signs closely. It is not an absolute contraindication. C is incorrect because upright positioning is generally beneficial for mobilizing secretions and improving ventilation-perfusion matching. Postural drainage principles would support moving from supine towards upright, not contraindicate it.

Question 16

A physical therapist is evaluating a 55-year-old female for a custom ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) 6 months post-stroke. The patient exhibits dense right hemiparesis with 2/5 dorsiflexor strength, 4/5 plantarflexor strength, and significant medial-lateral ankle instability. She has developed a fixed pes varus deformity of 10 degrees that is not correctable to neutral with manual force. She also has impaired sensation over the dorsum and lateral aspect of her foot.

Given these examination findings, which orthotic feature would be MOST contraindicated for this patient?

  1. A solid ankle design to provide maximum triplanar stability.
  2. A custom-molded thermoplastic shell based on a cast of the patient's limb. (correct answer)
  3. An articulating ankle joint with a plantar flexion stop.
  4. A full-length footplate to provide support through the entire stance phase.
Explanation: The correct answer is B. A custom-molded thermoplastic AFO is fabricated from a cast taken of the patient's limb in a corrected, subtalar neutral position. For this patient, her 10-degree fixed pes varus deformity cannot be corrected to neutral. Attempting to force her foot into a neutral AFO would create excessive, dangerous pressure points, particularly over the apex of the deformity (lateral foot) and potentially the medial malleolus. This is an absolute contraindication, especially given her impaired sensation, as it would almost certainly lead to skin breakdown and ulceration. The correct approach for a fixed deformity is to accommodate it, not attempt to correct it with a rigid device. A is incorrect because a solid ankle design is actually indicated to control the multi-planar instability (including the varus tendency) and compensate for weak dorsiflexors. However, it must be fabricated to accommodate the fixed deformity. C is incorrect because an articulating joint would be contraindicated for a different reason: it would not provide sufficient medial-lateral stability for this patient. However, the most critical contraindication is the attempt to correct a fixed deformity with a standard custom-molded shell. D is incorrect because a full-length footplate is often indicated in patients with spasticity or instability to provide better control of the foot throughout the stance phase. It is not contraindicated by the patient's specific presentation.

Question 17

A 68-year-old male with a 10-year history of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is referred to physical therapy for mobility training. He presents with significant dyspnea on exertion, requiring 4 L/min of continuous supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula to maintain SpO2 >90% during ambulation. His medical history is also significant for an unstable T8 vertebral compression fracture, for which he has been prescribed a thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO).

During gait training, the physical therapist notes that the patient's respiratory rate increases to 40 breaths/minute and his SpO2 drops to 86%, despite the supplemental oxygen. Which of the following factors is the MOST likely contraindication contributing to this acute decompensation?

  1. Use of a wheeled walker, which encourages a kyphotic posture.
  2. The TLSO, which restricts chest wall and diaphragmatic excursion. (correct answer)
  3. The flow rate of the supplemental oxygen, which is insufficient for exertional demands.
  4. The presence of the nasal cannula, which can increase the work of breathing.
Explanation: The correct answer is B. A thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO), particularly a rigid one prescribed for an unstable fracture, significantly restricts trunk motion. This restriction directly impacts the mechanics of breathing by limiting rib cage expansion (bucket and pump handle movements) and impeding full diaphragmatic descent. In a patient with pre-existing severe restrictive lung disease like idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, this iatrogenic restriction can be a relative or absolute contraindication to exertional activity, as it prevents the necessary compensatory increases in tidal volume, leading to rapid desaturation and respiratory distress. This constitutes a critical safety issue where the prescribed equipment for one system (musculoskeletal) creates a contraindication for another (pulmonary). A is incorrect because while a kyphotic posture can affect breathing, it is the direct, rigid restriction of the TLSO that is the most significant and immediate contraindication causing such a severe acute response. The walker itself does not inherently cause this level of decompensation. C is incorrect because while the oxygen flow rate may be insufficient, the underlying reason for the dramatically increased demand and inability to compensate is the mechanical restriction from the brace. The brace is the primary contraindication to the activity, not just the oxygen level. D is incorrect because a nasal cannula has a negligible effect on the work of breathing and is a standard delivery device. It is not a contraindication.

Question 18

A 15-year-old female with a diagnosis of adolescent idiopathic scoliosis has a right thoracic curve of 48 degrees (Cobb angle). She is skeletally mature (Risser sign 5). She complains of significant back pain and is being fitted for a spinal orthosis to manage her symptoms and prevent further progression.

Based on the patient's clinical presentation, the use of a corrective spinal orthosis, such as a Boston brace, is MOST likely contraindicated because:

  1. the magnitude of the Cobb angle exceeds the effective range for bracing.
  2. the patient's skeletal maturity indicates that the brace will not correct the curve. (correct answer)
  3. the presence of back pain suggests an underlying pathology not addressed by bracing.
  4. a Boston brace is designed for lumbar curves, not thoracic curves.
Explanation: The correct answer is B. The primary indication for using a corrective spinal orthosis in adolescent idiopathic scoliosis is to prevent curve progression during the remaining years of spinal growth. This patient's Risser sign of 5 indicates that she has reached skeletal maturity and significant spinal growth has ceased. Therefore, a corrective brace will not alter the fixed, structural nature of her 48-degree curve. Attempting to use a corrective brace at this stage is contraindicated as it offers no benefit for curve correction and can cause significant discomfort, skin breakdown, and psychological distress without achieving the intended therapeutic goal. Management for a symptomatic, skeletally mature curve of this magnitude would typically shift towards surgical consultation. A is incorrect because while curves >45-50 degrees are often considered for surgery, bracing is sometimes trialed for curves up to this magnitude if the patient is still growing. The primary contraindication here is the skeletal maturity, not the curve size itself. C is incorrect because back pain is a common symptom in scoliosis, and while it warrants investigation, it is not an absolute contraindication for bracing in a growing adolescent. The goal of the brace would be to halt progression that could worsen the pain. D is incorrect because the Boston brace (a thoracolumbosacral orthosis) is commonly used for both thoracic and lumbar curves.

Question 19

A 45-year-old patient with C6 tetraplegia is being evaluated for a manual wheelchair. The patient has 3+/5 strength in the wrist extensors bilaterally and is motivated to be as independent as possible with propulsion. The therapist is considering the configuration of the rear axle.

Which of the following rear axle positions is MOST contraindicated for this patient during the initial phase of propulsion training?

  1. Anterior and superior to the user's center of gravity.
  2. Directly aligned vertically with the user's greater trochanter.
  3. Posterior and inferior to the user's center of gravity. (correct answer)
  4. Anterior to the user's center of gravity with 3 degrees of camber.
Explanation: The correct answer is C. Placing the rear axle posterior and inferior to the user's center of gravity dramatically increases the wheelchair's stability but at a significant cost to propulsion efficiency and maneuverability. For a patient with C6 tetraplegia who relies on tenodesis grip and weak wrist extensors for propulsion, efficiency is paramount. A posterior axle position lengthens the wheelbase, increases rolling resistance, and requires a longer, less biomechanically efficient push stroke to move the chair. This would likely make independent propulsion impossible for this patient and is therefore contraindicated for achieving their goal of independence. A is incorrect because placing the axle anterior and superior makes the chair less stable ('tippy') but far more efficient to propel. While it requires more skill and poses a higher risk of tipping backward, it is often the goal position for experienced users to maximize performance, not a contraindication for training. B is a neutral starting position, often recommended for initial setup, balancing stability and efficiency. It is not contraindicated. D is incorrect because adding camber (inward tilt of the wheels) and an anterior axle position both improve lateral stability and propulsion efficiency, making it easier to turn and push. This is an appropriate modification, not a contraindication.

Question 20

A patient with multiple sclerosis is experiencing significant extensor spasticity in the left lower extremity, resulting in a consistent genu recurvatum during the stance phase of gait. The physical therapist is considering an orthosis to control the knee hyperextension.

Which of the following orthotic devices is MOST contraindicated to manage this patient's genu recurvatum?

  1. A knee-ankle-foot orthosis (KAFO) with a drop lock knee joint.
  2. A floor-reaction ankle-foot orthosis (AFO).
  3. A Swedish knee cage.
  4. An articulating AFO with a plantar flexion stop set at 5 degrees of dorsiflexion. (correct answer)
Explanation: The correct answer is D. An articulating AFO with a plantar flexion stop set to hold the ankle in dorsiflexion is contraindicated because it would exacerbate genu recurvatum. During stance phase, a dorsiflexed ankle position creates a knee extension moment. By preventing plantar flexion and forcing dorsiflexion at initial contact and through midstance, this orthosis would drive the knee further into hyperextension, directly opposing the therapeutic goal and increasing stress on the posterior knee structures. This is a critical biomechanical error. A is incorrect because a KAFO directly controls the knee and is an effective, albeit cumbersome, option for managing severe genu recurvatum. It is not contraindicated. B is incorrect because a floor-reaction AFO is specifically designed to control genu recurvatum. Its anterior shell applies a posteriorly directed force to the tibia during stance, creating a flexion moment at the knee to counteract the hyperextension. It is an indicated device. C is incorrect because a Swedish knee cage is a simple, three-point pressure orthosis designed specifically to block genu recurvatum. While it provides no ankle control, it directly addresses the knee issue and is not contraindicated.