National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) Quiz: Differential Diagnosis Reasoning
19 questions · exam conditions
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Differential Diagnosis ReasoningQuestion 1 of 19

A 45-year-old patient who is an avid swimmer presents with right-sided neck, shoulder, and medial scapular pain, along with paresthesias in the fourth and fifth digits. Symptoms are exacerbated when carrying a heavy bag or performing overhead activities. The physical examination reveals a positive Adson's test and an elevated arm stress test (EAST). There is 4/5 strength in the finger abductors and adductors. Reflexes are normal. The patient has a noted drooping shoulder posture. A chest radiograph was recently performed for an unrelated issue and was reported as unremarkable.

Which of the following conditions is the MOST likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

C8-T1 radiculopathy from foraminal stenosis
Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS)
Pancoast tumor
Suprascapular nerve entrapment
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National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) Quiz

National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) Quiz: Differential Diagnosis Reasoning

Practice Differential Diagnosis Reasoning in National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Differential Diagnosis Reasoning, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE).

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

A 45-year-old patient who is an avid swimmer presents with right-sided neck, shoulder, and medial scapular pain, along with paresthesias in the fourth and fifth digits. Symptoms are exacerbated when carrying a heavy bag or performing overhead activities. The physical examination reveals a positive Adson's test and an elevated arm stress test (EAST). There is 4/5 strength in the finger abductors and adductors. Reflexes are normal. The patient has a noted drooping shoulder posture. A chest radiograph was recently performed for an unrelated issue and was reported as unremarkable.

Which of the following conditions is the MOST likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

  1. C8-T1 radiculopathy from foraminal stenosis
  2. Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) (correct answer)
  3. Pancoast tumor
  4. Suprascapular nerve entrapment
Explanation: The correct answer is Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS). The symptom cluster involving pain and paresthesias in a C8-T1 distribution, reproduction of symptoms with provocative maneuvers that compress the thoracic outlet (Adson's, EAST), and postural contributing factors (drooping shoulder) strongly points to neurogenic TOS. The weakness in ulnar-innervated intrinsic hand muscles is also consistent with lower trunk brachial plexus compression. (A) C8-T1 radiculopathy is a primary differential. However, symptoms are typically exacerbated by cervical movements (e.g., Spurling's test) and relieved by shoulder abduction (Bakody's sign), which is the opposite of what is often seen in TOS. The provocative tests for TOS being positive makes it the more likely diagnosis. (C) A Pancoast tumor can cause C8-T1 symptoms (pain, paresthesias, intrinsic weakness) due to invasion of the brachial plexus. However, the patient's unremarkable chest radiograph makes this diagnosis highly unlikely. Furthermore, Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) is often present with Pancoast tumors and is not mentioned here. (D) Suprascapular nerve entrapment would cause deep, dull pain in the posterior shoulder and weakness in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus (abduction and external rotation), not sensory changes or weakness in the hand.

Question 2

A 68-year-old female who is 10 days status post right total knee arthroplasty presents to the clinic with an acute onset of severe, diffuse pain and swelling in her right calf that began yesterday. She denies fever or chills. On examination, her right calf is erythematous, warm to the touch, and exquisitely tender to palpation. Calf circumference is 4 cm greater than the left. There is a positive Homan's sign and a palpable, cord-like structure in the popliteal fossa. Her Wells' score is calculated to be 4. She has no history of skin breakdown or prior infection.

Given this clinical picture, which diagnosis requires the MOST immediate medical referral?

  1. Ruptured popliteal (Baker's) cyst
  2. Superficial thrombophlebitis
  3. Cellulitis
  4. Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) (correct answer)
Explanation: The correct answer is Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). The patient has multiple risk factors (recent major surgery, age) and classic signs/symptoms (unilateral calf swelling, pain, warmth, palpable cord). A Wells' score of 4 indicates a high probability of DVT, which is a medical emergency due to the risk of pulmonary embolism. Immediate referral for diagnostic ultrasound is critical. (A) A ruptured popliteal cyst (pseudothrombophlebitis) can perfectly mimic the signs of a DVT. However, given the high-risk profile (post-operative) and the high Wells' score, DVT must be assumed and ruled out first. The palpable cord is also more suggestive of a thrombosed vein. (B) Superficial thrombophlebitis involves a superficial vein and typically presents as a localized, linear, tender red cord. The diffuse, significant swelling and deep tenderness seen in this patient are more indicative of a deep system pathology. (C) Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection. While it presents with erythema, warmth, and swelling, it is often associated with a portal of entry (e.g., skin abrasion) and systemic signs like fever or malaise, which are absent here. The onset is also typically more gradual than what is described.

Question 3

A 28-year-old male presents with chronic low back pain and stiffness that has been worsening over the last two years. The stiffness is most severe in the morning, lasting for several hours, and improves with activity but worsens with rest. He has had to start sleeping on his side because lying on his back has become too painful. Examination reveals decreased lumbar spine flexion and extension, tenderness over the sacroiliac joints, and a positive Schober's test. He also mentions a history of intermittent eye pain and redness diagnosed as uveitis.

This patient's clinical presentation is MOST characteristic of which condition?

  1. Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)
  2. Lumbar degenerative disc disease (DDD)
  3. Mechanical sacroiliac joint dysfunction
  4. Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) (correct answer)
Explanation: The correct answer is Ankylosing spondylitis (AS). This is a classic presentation for AS, an inflammatory arthritis affecting the axial skeleton. Key features include male predominance, age of onset <40 years, insidious onset of inflammatory back pain (worse with rest, better with activity), significant morning stiffness, SI joint involvement, and extra-articular manifestations like uveitis. The positive Schober's test indicates restricted lumbar flexion, a common finding. (A) Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH) causes spinal stiffness but typically affects an older population (>50 years old), does not primarily involve the SI joints, and is not associated with the inflammatory markers or extra-articular features like uveitis seen in AS. (B) Lumbar degenerative disc disease causes mechanical back pain, which typically worsens with activity and improves with rest, the opposite pattern of inflammatory back pain. Morning stiffness is usually brief (<30 minutes). (C) Mechanical sacroiliac joint dysfunction can cause pain over the SI joints but it is typically unilateral and does not cause the profound morning stiffness, progressive loss of spinal mobility, or systemic inflammatory features (uveitis) seen in this case.

Question 4

A 33-year-old female is referred to physical therapy 4 days after being discharged from the hospital. Her hospital course was for a severe gastrointestinal infection. She now presents with rapidly ascending, symmetrical weakness and distal sensory impairments in her hands and feet. She reports her legs feel 'heavy' and she has difficulty climbing stairs. Examination reveals absent deep tendon reflexes in the lower extremities and 1/2+ reflexes in the upper extremities. Cranial nerve examination is unremarkable. Her weakness has progressed since she was discharged.

Which of the following conditions is the MOST likely cause of her current symptoms?

  1. Transverse myelitis
  2. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) (correct answer)
  3. Acute inflammatory myopathy
  4. Tick paralysis
Explanation: The correct answer is Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). The classic presentation of GBS is a rapidly ascending, symmetrical weakness, often following a recent infection (respiratory or GI). Areflexia or hyporeflexia is a hallmark sign. The distal sensory changes are also characteristic. The progression of symptoms over days is typical for the acute phase of GBS. (A) Transverse myelitis is an inflammatory condition of the spinal cord. It typically presents with a distinct sensory level, more prominent upper motor neuron signs (hyperreflexia, spasticity) below the level of the lesion, and often includes bowel/bladder dysfunction, which are not the primary features here. (C) Acute inflammatory myopathies (like polymyositis or dermatomyositis) primarily cause proximal muscle weakness, and reflexes are usually preserved until late in the disease. They do not typically present with the ascending pattern or areflexia seen in GBS. (D) Tick paralysis also causes an ascending paralysis. However, it resolves rapidly after removal of the embedded tick. A thorough skin check for a tick would be part of the workup, but GBS is more likely given the classic post-infectious trigger and clinical pattern.

Question 5

An 80-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of intense, spinning vertigo lasting for 20-30 seconds. The episodes are consistently triggered when she rolls over to the right in bed or when she tilts her head back to look at a high shelf. Between episodes, she feels perfectly fine, although she is now fearful of moving her head. She denies any hearing loss, tinnitus, or aural fullness. Neurological examination is unremarkable.

Which examination finding would BEST confirm the suspected diagnosis?

  1. Spontaneous nystagmus observed in room light with fixation.
  2. Positive head-thrust test to the left side.
  3. Upbeating and torsional nystagmus during the Dix-Hallpike test to the right. (correct answer)
  4. Fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry.
Explanation: The correct answer is upbeating and torsional nystagmus during the Dix-Hallpike test to the right. The patient's history is classic for posterior canal Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV). The brief, intense episodes of vertigo are triggered by specific head position changes relative to gravity. The Dix-Hallpike test is the gold standard diagnostic maneuver for posterior canal BPPV, and a positive test on the right will provoke her vertigo and a characteristic upbeating and torsional nystagmus. (A) Spontaneous nystagmus present with fixation is a red flag for a central pathology, not BPPV. In peripheral conditions like BPPV, any nystagmus is typically suppressed by visual fixation. (B) A positive head-thrust test indicates a vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) deficit, which is characteristic of a peripheral hypofunction, such as in vestibular neuritis. The patient's history is not consistent with vestibular neuritis, which typically involves a single, prolonged episode of severe vertigo, nausea, and imbalance. (D) Fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss, along with tinnitus and aural fullness, is a hallmark of Meniere's disease. Meniere's attacks of vertigo are typically spontaneous and last for hours, not seconds, and are not provoked by position changes.

Question 6

A 35-year-old female presents with severe, burning pain in her left hand 8 weeks after a minor crush injury to her index finger, which has since healed. The pain is disproportionate to the initial injury and has spread to involve the entire hand. She describes the hand as being constantly swollen, and the skin appears shiny and is often a blotchy, reddish color. She exhibits extreme sensitivity to light touch (allodynia) and has difficulty moving her fingers due to pain and stiffness. She is very protective of the hand and displays significant emotional distress regarding her symptoms.

This constellation of signs and symptoms is MOST indicative of which of the following conditions?

  1. Factitious disorder imposed on self
  2. Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) (correct answer)
  3. Inadequately healed fracture with nerve impingement
  4. Raynaud's phenomenon
Explanation: The correct answer is Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS). The presentation aligns with the Budapest criteria for CRPS: a continuing pain disproportionate to the inciting event, reported symptoms across several categories (sensory: allodynia; vasomotor: skin color changes; sudomotor/edema: swelling; motor/trophic: motor dysfunction, trophic changes like shiny skin), and observable signs in those categories. The timeline following trauma is also classic for CRPS Type I. (A) Factitious disorder involves the intentional falsification of symptoms for the purpose of assuming the sick role. While the patient's distress is high, the objective physical findings (swelling, skin color changes, shiny skin) make a purely psychogenic origin unlikely. CRPS involves real, measurable pathophysiological changes. (C) A nerve impingement from a healing fracture could cause pain and sensory changes, but it would not typically explain the vasomotor (color changes), sudomotor (swelling), and trophic (shiny skin) changes affecting the entire hand in a non-dermatomal pattern. (D) Raynaud's phenomenon is a vascular disorder characterized by episodic vasospasm of the digits in response to cold or stress, leading to well-demarcated color changes (white, blue, red). It does not cause the constant burning pain, allodynia, or edema described in this case.

Question 7

A 65-year-old male is recovering from a right coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery performed 3 days ago. The physical therapist is seeing him for his first mobilization session. The patient reports new onset of sharp, left-sided chest pain and shortness of breath that started acutely this morning. His vital signs are: heart rate 115 bpm, respiratory rate 24 breaths/min, blood pressure 130/85 mmHg, and SpO2 91% on room air. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. He has a sternal incision and a saphenous vein graft incision on his left leg.

The patient's acute change in status is MOST concerning for which of the following postoperative complications?

  1. Sternal wound dehiscence
  2. Atelectasis
  3. Pulmonary embolism (PE) (correct answer)
  4. Pneumonia
Explanation: The correct answer is Pulmonary embolism (PE). The triad of acute onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia in a high-risk postoperative patient is highly suggestive of a PE. His hypoxia (SpO2 91%) further supports this diagnosis. Immobility and recent major surgery are significant risk factors. This is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical attention. (A) Sternal wound dehiscence would present with pain, clicking, or instability at the sternotomy site, but it would not typically cause acute dyspnea, tachycardia, and hypoxia. (B) Atelectasis is a very common post-op complication and can cause decreased breath sounds and a low-grade fever. However, it does not usually cause acute, sharp chest pain and significant tachycardia and hypoxia of this magnitude. (D) Pneumonia is also a risk, but its onset is typically more gradual and is almost always accompanied by a productive cough and fever. The sudden, acute nature of this patient's symptoms makes PE a more likely and urgent diagnosis.

Question 8

A 62-year-old male presents with bilateral buttock and posterior thigh pain that occurs after walking approximately 500 feet. He describes the pain as an 'aching and cramping' sensation. The symptoms are reliably relieved within a few minutes of sitting down or leaning forward on a shopping cart. He denies pain at rest or at night. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Examination reveals diminished pedal pulses bilaterally. Lumbar range of motion is slightly limited in extension, which does not reproduce his leg symptoms. The straight leg raise test is negative. His symptoms are not reproduced with stationary cycling.

Which of the following conditions BEST accounts for the patient's symptom pattern?

  1. Lumbar spinal stenosis causing neurogenic claudication (correct answer)
  2. Peripheral arterial disease causing vascular claudication
  3. Bilateral piriformis syndrome
  4. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
Explanation: The correct answer is Lumbar spinal stenosis causing neurogenic claudication. The key differentiating features are the positional relief of symptoms (sitting, leaning forward - the 'shopping cart sign') which mechanically opens the spinal canal, and the lack of symptoms with stationary cycling (where the spine is flexed). These strongly suggest a neurogenic origin. The pain distribution is also classic for stenosis. (B) Peripheral arterial disease causing vascular claudication is a strong distractor due to the patient's risk factors and diminished pulses. However, vascular claudication is purely dependent on metabolic demand of the muscle. Symptoms would be reproduced by any leg exercise, including stationary cycling, and relief comes from simply stopping the activity, regardless of position. The positional relief is the key differentiator pointing away from vascular claudication. (C) Bilateral piriformis syndrome is unlikely. It typically presents with buttock pain that may radiate down the leg but is not strongly related to walking distance and is usually aggravated by sitting, not relieved by it. (D) Diabetic peripheral neuropathy typically presents with sensory disturbances like numbness, tingling, or burning in a 'stocking-glove' distribution, not activity-induced cramping pain that is relieved by rest and positional changes.

Question 9

A 38-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of right buttock pain. The pain is described as deep and aching, and is worsened by sitting for more than 20 minutes, especially on hard surfaces. The pain sometimes radiates down the posterior thigh but does not go past the knee. She denies low back pain. Physical examination reveals a negative straight leg raise test and negative slump test. There is marked tenderness to palpation in the area of the sciatic notch. The FAIR (flexion, adduction, internal rotation) test is positive, reproducing her buttock pain. Resisted external rotation of the hip is weak and painful.

Based on this clinical presentation, what is the MOST likely diagnosis?

  1. L5-S1 lumbar radiculopathy
  2. Ischiofemoral impingement
  3. Deep gluteal syndrome (correct answer)
  4. High hamstring tendinopathy
Explanation: The correct answer is Deep gluteal syndrome. This is an umbrella term for sciatic nerve entrapment by a non-discogenic source in the subgluteal space, with piriformis syndrome being the most common cause. The classic features are present: buttock pain worsened by sitting, radicular-like pain not extending past the knee, absence of lumbar signs, and positive provocative tests like the FAIR test that tension the piriformis and other short external rotators over the sciatic nerve. (A) L5-S1 lumbar radiculopathy would typically present with a positive straight leg raise or slump test and may be associated with dermatomal sensory loss, myotomal weakness, or reflex changes in the S1 distribution (e.g., diminished Achilles reflex). The absence of these findings and negative tension signs makes a lumbar origin less likely. (B) Ischiofemoral impingement causes pain more medially and inferiorly in the buttock, closer to the ischial tuberosity. It is provoked by movements that narrow the space between the ischium and femur, such as combined hip extension, adduction, and external rotation. (D) High hamstring tendinopathy presents with pain at the ischial tuberosity, which is inferior to the sciatic notch. The pain is typically aggravated by activities that involve forceful hamstring contraction, like running or sprinting, and by prolonged sitting that compresses the tendon.

Question 10

A 19-year-old male presents with right lower quadrant abdominal pain that began 24 hours ago. The pain started as a vague discomfort around his umbilicus and has now localized to the RLQ. He reports nausea and loss of appetite. On examination, he has tenderness at McBurney's point. The therapist performs a maneuver by having the patient lie on his left side and passively extending the patient's right hip. This maneuver elicits sharp right lower quadrant pain. There are no signs of primary hip pathology.

The positive result of the maneuver performed by the therapist increases the suspicion of which condition?

  1. Inguinal hernia
  2. Iliopsoas abscess
  3. Kidney stone (ureterolithiasis)
  4. Retrocecal appendicitis (correct answer)
Explanation: The correct answer is Retrocecal appendicitis. The maneuver described is the psoas sign. A positive psoas sign (pain with passive hip extension) suggests irritation of the iliopsoas muscle. In the context of migrating RLQ pain and tenderness at McBurney's point, this strongly suggests that a retrocecal appendix (an appendix located behind the cecum) is inflamed and irritating the overlying psoas muscle. This is a critical finding suggesting appendicitis. (A) An inguinal hernia would present with a bulge in the groin and pain that might worsen with coughing or straining. It would not cause a positive psoas sign. (B) An iliopsoas abscess would also cause a positive psoas sign and can present with abdominal or hip pain. However, it is less common and is usually associated with a high fever and a history of a recent infection (e.g., Crohn's disease, diverticulitis). The classic migration of pain from periumbilical to RLQ is the key feature pointing to appendicitis. (C) A kidney stone passing through the ureter can cause severe flank pain that radiates to the groin. While it can cause abdominal pain, the classic migratory pattern and focal tenderness at McBurney's point are less common.

Question 11

A 32-year-old woman from Connecticut presents in late summer with a 3-week history of migratory arthralgia affecting her knees and elbows, profound fatigue, and intermittent headaches. She recalls having a circular red rash on her thigh about a month ago after a hiking trip, which resolved on its own. She denies significant morning stiffness. Examination shows mild swelling and tenderness in the right knee but is otherwise unremarkable. She has no significant past medical history.

This patient's constellation of symptoms is MOST suggestive of which of the following conditions?

  1. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
  2. Fibromyalgia
  3. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  4. Lyme disease (correct answer)
Explanation: The correct answer is Lyme disease. The history is highly suggestive of early disseminated Lyme disease. Key features include the geographic location (Connecticut is an endemic area), recent history of a rash consistent with erythema migrans, and the subsequent development of migratory oligoarthritis, fatigue, and headaches. This clinical picture is classic for Lyme disease. (A) Rheumatoid arthritis typically presents as a symmetric polyarthritis, primarily affecting the small joints of the hands and feet, and is associated with prolonged morning stiffness. The migratory, oligoarticular pattern in this patient is less typical for RA. (B) Fibromyalgia is characterized by chronic widespread pain, fatigue, and tender points. However, it does not cause joint swelling (inflammation) or the characteristic preceding rash. (C) Systemic lupus erythematosus is a multi-system autoimmune disease that can cause arthritis and fatigue. However, it is often associated with other features like a malar (butterfly) rash, photosensitivity, or renal involvement. The history of the specific circular rash after hiking strongly points towards Lyme disease.

Question 12

A 40-year-old male presents with sharp, retrosternal chest pain that began 2 days ago. He reports the pain is worse when he is lying flat and during deep inspiration. He finds some relief by sitting up and leaning forward. He denies any radiation of pain to his arm or jaw. On auscultation, a friction rub is heard over the left sternal border. His vital signs are stable, and an ECG shows diffuse ST-segment elevation without reciprocal changes. Cardiac enzymes are slightly elevated.

The patient's signs and symptoms are MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?

  1. Acute myocardial infarction (MI)
  2. Costochondritis
  3. Acute pericarditis (correct answer)
  4. Pulmonary embolism (PE)
Explanation: The correct answer is Acute pericarditis. The classic presentation includes sharp, pleuritic chest pain that is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward and worsened by lying supine. The presence of a pericardial friction rub on auscultation is pathognomonic. The diffuse ST elevation on ECG is also a hallmark finding for pericarditis, differentiating it from the localized ST elevation with reciprocal depression seen in MI. (A) Acute myocardial infarction pain is typically described as a pressure or squeezing sensation, often radiates to the arm/jaw, and is not significantly affected by position or respiration. While ECG can show ST elevation, it is typically localized to specific leads with reciprocal changes. (B) Costochondritis causes chest wall pain that is reproducible with palpation of the costosternal joints. It would not cause a friction rub, ECG changes, or elevated cardiac enzymes. (D) A pulmonary embolism can cause pleuritic chest pain, but it is usually accompanied by dyspnea and tachycardia. The classic positional relief by leaning forward is not a feature of PE, and the ECG and auscultation findings are not typical for PE.

Question 13

A 52-year-old female presents with complaints of fatigue and a 'heavy feeling' in her eyelids, which worsens as the day progresses. She works as a teacher and finds her voice becomes hoarse and her speech slurs by the end of the school day. She also notes difficulty chewing tough foods and has experienced double vision when watching television in the evening. Symptoms are noticeably better in the morning after a night of rest. A neurological exam is normal except for the development of bilateral ptosis after 30 seconds of sustained upward gaze.

The patient's pattern of fluctuating, activity-induced weakness is MOST characteristic of which neuromuscular disorder?

  1. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS)
  2. Myasthenia gravis (MG) (correct answer)
  3. Polymyositis
  4. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
Explanation: The correct answer is Myasthenia gravis (MG). This is a classic presentation of MG, an autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction. The hallmark feature is fatigable weakness of skeletal muscles, which worsens with repetitive use and improves with rest. The predilection for ocular (ptosis, diplopia) and bulbar (dysarthria, dysphagia) muscles is highly characteristic. The provocation of ptosis with sustained upgaze is a common clinical test for MG. (A) Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is another neuromuscular junction disorder, but it is characterized by weakness that improves with brief exercise before fatiguing. It also typically affects proximal limb muscles more than ocular and bulbar muscles, and is often associated with small-cell lung cancer. (C) Polymyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that causes symmetric, proximal muscle weakness that is constant and does not fluctuate significantly with rest or activity in the same way as MG. Ocular muscle involvement is rare. (D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a progressive neurodegenerative disease causing muscle weakness, but the weakness is due to motor neuron death and does not improve with rest. ALS involves a combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs, rather than the isolated fatigable weakness seen here.

Question 14

A 45-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of severe low back pain that began this morning after he bent down to pick up a box. The pain radiates bilaterally down the posterior aspect of both legs to his feet. He reports a 'saddle-like' numbness in his groin and perineal area. He also states that he has felt an increasing urge to urinate but has been unable to void for the past few hours. Examination reveals absent Achilles reflexes bilaterally, 3/5 strength in ankle plantarflexion, and decreased sensation to pinprick in the S2-S4 dermatomes.

Which of the following conditions is the MOST critical diagnosis to identify?

  1. Conus medullaris syndrome
  2. Cauda equina syndrome (correct answer)
  3. Large central disc herniation without neurological compromise
  4. Bilateral S1 radiculopathy
Explanation: The correct answer is Cauda equina syndrome (CES). This is a surgical emergency. The classic triad of symptoms is saddle anesthesia, bowel/bladder dysfunction (in this case, urinary retention), and bilateral lower extremity weakness. This patient presents with all three. CES is caused by compression of the nerve roots of the cauda equina, and delayed treatment can lead to permanent paralysis and incontinence. The LMN signs (areflexia, weakness) are characteristic of nerve root compression. (A) Conus medullaris syndrome involves injury to the sacral spinal cord itself. It can also present with saddle anesthesia and bladder dysfunction, but it characteristically presents with a combination of UMN and LMN signs, and the onset of symptoms is often sudden and bilateral. While there is overlap, the pure LMN signs (absent reflexes) and severe radicular pain make CES more likely. (C) A large central disc herniation is the likely cause, but the diagnosis is not complete without acknowledging the resulting neurological compromise. The presence of saddle anesthesia and urinary retention signifies that this is not a simple disc herniation and must be treated as an emergency. (D) Bilateral S1 radiculopathy would explain the Achilles areflexia and plantarflexion weakness. However, it would not explain the saddle anesthesia or the urinary retention, which are the most alarming red flag signs in this presentation.

Question 15

A 72-year-old female presents with bilateral shoulder pain and marked morning stiffness lasting over 90 minutes for the past month. She reports significant difficulty with overhead activities such as combing her hair. She also complains of generalized malaise, fatigue, and a low-grade fever. Physical examination reveals limited active and passive shoulder abduction and flexion bilaterally due to pain and stiffness. There is tenderness over the subacromial spaces but no significant weakness on manual muscle testing of the rotator cuff. Laboratory results show a markedly elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 85 mm/hr.

Given this patient's presentation and lab findings, what is the MOST likely diagnosis?

  1. Bilateral adhesive capsulitis
  2. Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) (correct answer)
  3. Fibromyalgia
  4. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Explanation: The correct answer is Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR). This systemic inflammatory condition is characterized by age over 50, bilateral shoulder and/or hip girdle pain, significant morning stiffness (>45 min), constitutional symptoms (malaise, fatigue, fever), and a highly elevated ESR. The clinical picture fits PMR perfectly. The functional limitations are due to pain and stiffness rather than true weakness. (A) Bilateral adhesive capsulitis is unlikely to have a simultaneous onset and would not be associated with systemic symptoms like fever and malaise or a markedly elevated ESR. It presents with a capsular pattern of restriction, but lacks the systemic inflammatory component. (C) Fibromyalgia involves widespread pain and tenderness, but it is a non-inflammatory condition. Therefore, inflammatory markers like ESR would be normal. It also does not typically present with such profound and localized morning stiffness in the shoulder girdles. (D) Rheumatoid arthritis could present with bilateral shoulder involvement and elevated ESR. However, RA typically affects the small joints of the hands and feet symmetrically first, and lacks the specific predilection for the shoulder and pelvic girdles that is the hallmark of PMR.

Question 16

A 58-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of insidious onset of neck stiffness, bilateral hand clumsiness, and a feeling of unsteadiness when walking. He reports dropping objects more frequently and has difficulty with buttoning his shirt. His symptoms are slowly progressive. Examination reveals a positive Hoffman's sign bilaterally, a positive inverted supinator sign, hyperreflexia in the quadriceps and Achilles tendons, and a positive Babinski sign. Strength testing is 4/5 in the intrinsic hand muscles and 5/5 elsewhere. Sensation is intact to light touch and pinprick, but he reports vague, non-dermatomal paresthesias in his hands and feet. There is no facial weakness, dysarthria, or dysphagia.

Based on the patient's clinical presentation, which of the following conditions is the MOST likely diagnosis?

  1. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)
  2. Cervical Spondylotic Myelopathy (CSM) (correct answer)
  3. Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
  4. Syringomyelia
Explanation: The correct answer is Cervical Spondylotic Myelopathy (CSM). The patient's age, insidious onset, neck stiffness, and combination of upper motor neuron (UMN) signs (hyperreflexia, Babinski, Hoffman's) and lower motor neuron (LMN) signs at the level of the lesion (hand weakness) are classic for CSM. The gait disturbance and hand clumsiness are hallmark features of spinal cord compression in the cervical region. The absence of significant pain and the presence of only vague sensory changes are also characteristic. (A) Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) is a strong distractor due to the presence of UMN signs. However, ALS is a progressive disease of both UMN and LMNs, and one would expect to see more widespread LMN signs like fasciculations and significant muscle atrophy, which are not reported. Also, neck stiffness is a primary complaint pointing towards a cervical spine origin. (C) Multiple Sclerosis (MS) can present with UMN signs, but the age of onset is typically younger (20-40 years). MS often presents with other symptoms not seen here, such as optic neuritis, significant fatigue, or a relapsing-remitting course. The presentation is more consistent with a focal compressive lesion than demyelinating plaques. (D) Syringomyelia would present with UMN signs below the level of the syrinx. However, its classic presentation includes a 'cape-like' distribution of dissociated sensory loss (loss of pain and temperature with preserved light touch) across the upper back and arms, which is absent in this patient.

Question 17

A 48-year-old female marathon runner reports a 4-month history of worsening right lateral hip pain. The pain is located over the greater trochanter and can radiate down the lateral thigh. It is aggravated by running, lying on her right side at night, and prolonged sitting. Examination reveals significant point tenderness over the greater trochanter. The hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation (FADIR) test is negative. However, resisted hip abduction is weak and painful, and she demonstrates a positive single-leg stance test (Trendelenburg sign) for 30 seconds with reproduction of her lateral hip pain.

Which diagnosis BEST explains this patient's clinical presentation?

  1. Iliotibial (IT) band syndrome
  2. L4-L5 radiculopathy
  3. Gluteal tendinopathy (correct answer)
  4. Ischiofemoral impingement
Explanation: The correct answer is Gluteal tendinopathy. This condition, often part of 'greater trochanteric pain syndrome,' is the most common cause of lateral hip pain. The presentation of point tenderness over the greater trochanter, pain with side-lying, and pain/weakness with resisted hip abduction is classic. The positive single-leg stance test reproducing lateral hip pain is also highly indicative of abductor tendon pathology (gluteus medius/minimus). The patient's history as a runner is a common risk factor. (A) Iliotibial (IT) band syndrome typically causes pain at the lateral femoral epicondyle near the knee, not the greater trochanter. While the Ober's test may be positive, the primary pain location is different. (B) L4-L5 radiculopathy can cause lateral thigh pain, but it would typically be associated with neurological signs such as altered sensation, changes in reflexes, and a positive straight leg raise or slump test. Pain would also likely be reproduced with lumbar spine movements. (D) Ischiofemoral impingement causes posterior hip/buttock pain due to compression of the quadratus femoris muscle between the ischial tuberosity and the lesser trochanter. Pain is usually provoked by combined hip extension, adduction, and external rotation, not abduction.

Question 18

A 22-year-old collegiate soccer player sustained a blow to the left upper abdomen and lower rib cage during a game 2 hours ago. He was initially able to continue playing but was later removed due to increasing abdominal discomfort. He is now in the training room and complains of intense, sharp pain in his left shoulder. There is no history of shoulder injury, and the athletic trainer's examination of the shoulder joint itself is negative for any local tenderness, instability, or painful arc of motion.

The patient's left shoulder pain is MOST likely an example of referred pain from an injury to which organ?

  1. Diaphragm
  2. Stomach
  3. Spleen (correct answer)
  4. Left kidney
Explanation: The correct answer is the Spleen. The presentation of left shoulder pain following trauma to the left upper quadrant is a classic presentation of Kehr's sign. This referred pain occurs when blood from a ruptured spleen irritates the diaphragm and the phrenic nerve (C3-C5 nerve roots), which shares innervation with the shoulder region. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate referral. (A) While irritation of the diaphragm is the mechanism for Kehr's sign, the underlying injury in this trauma context is most likely to the spleen, which then bleeds and irritates the diaphragm. The spleen is the primary injured organ. (B) Pain from the stomach is typically referred to the epigastric area or the upper back between the scapulae, not the shoulder tip. (D) Pain from the left kidney is typically referred to the left flank, lower back, or groin, not the shoulder tip.

Question 19

A 66-year-old male with a history of coronary artery disease and atrial fibrillation is brought to the emergency department with sudden onset of vertigo, dizziness, diplopia, and dysarthria. During the physical therapy screen, the patient demonstrates ataxia of the right upper and lower extremities. A cranial nerve exam reveals nystagmus, dysphagia, and hoarseness. He also has loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of his face and the left side of his body. Motor strength is grossly intact.

This specific combination of neurological signs is MOST consistent with an occlusion of which artery?

  1. Anterior cerebral artery
  2. Middle cerebral artery
  3. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) (correct answer)
  4. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)
Explanation: The correct answer is Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA). This presentation is classic for Wallenberg syndrome, or lateral medullary syndrome, caused by an infarct in the territory of PICA. The key features are crossed sensory findings (ipsilateral face, contralateral body pain/temp loss), ipsilateral ataxia, vertigo, nystagmus, dysphagia, and hoarseness. This combination of brainstem and cerebellar signs points directly to the lateral medulla. (A) An anterior cerebral artery occlusion would primarily cause contralateral leg weakness and sensory loss, along with possible frontal lobe signs like abulia or grasp reflexes. (B) A middle cerebral artery occlusion, the most common type of stroke, would cause contralateral face and arm weakness and sensory loss greater than leg involvement, along with aphasia (if on the dominant side) or neglect (if on the non-dominant side). (D) An anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) occlusion can also cause vertigo, nystagmus, and ipsilateral ataxia. However, it is classically associated with ipsilateral hearing loss and facial paralysis, which are absent in this case. The crossed sensory findings are the hallmark of the PICA territory infarct.