National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) Quiz: Billing Coding And Reimbursement
20 questions · exam conditions
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Billing Coding And ReimbursementQuestion 1 of 20

A physical therapist in an outpatient clinic treats a 68-year-old patient with Medicare Part B. The session consists of 21 minutes of therapeutic exercise (CPT 97110) focused on lower extremity strengthening and 25 minutes of manual therapy (CPT 97140) for lumbosacral joint mobilization. The total direct treatment time is 46 minutes.

According to Medicare's 8-minute rule and billing guidelines for multiple timed CPT codes, how should the therapist bill for this session?

1 unit of 97110 and 1 unit of 97140.
2 units of 97110 and 1 unit of 97140.
1 unit of 97110 and 2 units of 97140.
2 units of 97110 and 2 units of 97140.
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National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) Quiz

National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) Quiz: Billing Coding And Reimbursement

Practice Billing Coding And Reimbursement in National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Billing Coding And Reimbursement, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE).

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

A physical therapist in an outpatient clinic treats a 68-year-old patient with Medicare Part B. The session consists of 21 minutes of therapeutic exercise (CPT 97110) focused on lower extremity strengthening and 25 minutes of manual therapy (CPT 97140) for lumbosacral joint mobilization. The total direct treatment time is 46 minutes.

According to Medicare's 8-minute rule and billing guidelines for multiple timed CPT codes, how should the therapist bill for this session?

  1. 1 unit of 97110 and 1 unit of 97140.
  2. 2 units of 97110 and 1 unit of 97140.
  3. 1 unit of 97110 and 2 units of 97140. (correct answer)
  4. 2 units of 97110 and 2 units of 97140.
Explanation: The correct approach involves multiple steps. First, sum the total one-on-one timed minutes: 21 + 25 = 46 minutes. Second, use the total time to determine the maximum number of billable units according to Medicare's 8-minute rule chart. 46 minutes falls within the range for 3 units (38-52 minutes). Third, allocate these 3 units. Each service receives at least one full unit (15 minutes). 97110 has a remainder of 6 minutes (21-15), and 97140 has a remainder of 10 minutes (25-15). The third unit is billed for the service with the largest time component, which is the 25 minutes of manual therapy. Therefore, the correct billing is 1 unit of 97110 and 2 units of 97140.

Question 2

A physical therapist is treating a patient with chronic right shoulder pain due to a rotator cuff tear. During a session, the therapist performs instrument-assisted soft tissue mobilization to the infraspinatus and teres minor, followed by glenohumeral joint mobilizations to improve external rotation. Both interventions are performed to address soft tissue and joint restrictions contributing to the patient's functional limitations.

To ensure accurate coding that reflects the distinct nature of these two procedures performed in the same session, which CPT modifier is MOST appropriate to append to the joint mobilization code?

  1. Modifier 59, to indicate a distinct procedural service.
  2. Modifier XE, to indicate a separate encounter.
  3. Modifier XS, to indicate a separate structure or organ. (correct answer)
  4. Modifier XU, to indicate an unusual non-overlapping service.
Explanation: Modifier 59 is a general modifier indicating a distinct procedural service. However, Medicare encourages the use of more specific X-series modifiers. In this case, instrument-assisted soft tissue mobilization (often billed as 97140, manual therapy) targets muscles/fascia, while joint mobilization (also 97140) targets the articular capsule. Because these are anatomically distinct structures (muscle vs. joint capsule) within the same region, Modifier XS (Separate Structure) is the MOST precise and appropriate modifier to indicate that the services were separate and distinct.

Question 3

A 72-year-old patient with Medicare is receiving physical therapy for gait instability. The therapist believes that a specialized balance training program using virtual reality, which is not covered by Medicare, would be beneficial. The patient agrees to pay for this service out-of-pocket. The therapist also provides standard, medically necessary, covered services during the same visit.

What is the MOST appropriate action for the therapist to take regarding the non-covered virtual reality service?

  1. Have the patient sign a standard consent form agreeing to pay for the service before providing it.
  2. Provide the service and bill it to Medicare; if it is denied, the patient can then be billed.
  3. Have the patient sign an Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage (ABN) before providing the virtual reality service. (correct answer)
  4. Do not provide the service, as it is a violation of Medicare policy to accept cash from a beneficiary for any service.
Explanation: An Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage (ABN), Form CMS-R-131, is required when a provider believes a service that is normally covered may not be considered medically necessary for a specific patient, or when providing a service that is statutorily non-covered. While a general consent form is good practice, the ABN is the specific legal document required by Medicare to hold the patient financially responsible for non-covered services. Billing Medicare first for a service known to be not covered is improper. It is permissible to accept cash payment from a Medicare beneficiary for non-covered services, provided the proper ABN procedure is followed.

Question 4

A physical therapist is developing a plan of care for a patient with primary progressive multiple sclerosis. The patient is not expected to regain lost function, but physical therapy is required to manage spasticity, maintain current ambulatory ability, and prevent contractures. The patient is covered by Medicare Part B.

Which of the following BEST justifies the medical necessity for continued physical therapy for this patient under Medicare guidelines?

  1. The patient demonstrates consistent improvement in strength and balance outcome measures.
  2. The services are provided to prevent or slow deterioration of the patient's condition. (correct answer)
  3. The plan of care is designed to restore the patient's prior level of function.
  4. The patient has not yet exceeded the annual therapy financial limitation.
Explanation: This question tests knowledge of the Jimmo v. Sebelius settlement, which clarified that Medicare coverage cannot be denied solely because a patient's condition is chronic or not improving. Medical necessity for skilled therapy can be established if the services are required to maintain the patient's current condition or to prevent or slow further deterioration. For a patient with a progressive neurological disease, this 'maintenance coverage' is the key justification. Expecting improvement or restoration of prior function is not realistic and not required for coverage. The therapy financial limitation is a payment issue, not a standard for medical necessity.

Question 5

A patient presents to physical therapy with a referral for right knee pain. The patient sustained a non-displaced fracture of the patella 8 weeks ago after a fall. The fracture is now healed, and the patient's primary complaints are stiffness, weakness, and difficulty with stair climbing. The patient has not received any therapy for this condition previously.

Which of the following represents the MOST accurate ICD-10 coding for this patient's initial physical therapy evaluation?

  1. S82.001A (Unspecified fracture of right patella, initial encounter for closed fracture).
  2. M25.561 (Pain in right knee) as the primary diagnosis.
  3. S82.001S (Unspecified fracture of right patella, sequela).
  4. S82.001D (Unspecified fracture of right patella, subsequent encounter for closed fracture with routine healing). (correct answer)
Explanation: The key is the 7th character extender in the ICD-10 code. 'A' (initial encounter) is used for active treatment of the injury (e.g., in the emergency room). 'D' (subsequent encounter) is used during the healing/recovery phase, which accurately describes this patient's situation 8 weeks post-injury, starting rehabilitation. 'S' (sequela) is used for late effects of an injury (e.g., post-traumatic arthritis a year later). While knee pain (M25.561) is present, the cause of the condition (the fracture) should be coded as the primary diagnosis. Therefore, the fracture code with the 'D' extender is most appropriate.

Question 6

A physical therapist in a hospital-based outpatient department is treating a patient via telehealth. The patient is located in their own home, which is 20 miles from the hospital. The therapy session is conducted using a real-time, two-way audio/video platform.

To correctly bill for this telehealth service provided to a Medicare patient, which combination of Place of Service (POS) code and modifier should be used?

  1. POS 11 (Physician's Office) with modifier GT.
  2. POS 02 (Telehealth Provided Other than in Patient's Home) with modifier 95.
  3. POS 10 (Telehealth Provided in Patient's Home) with modifier 95. (correct answer)
  4. POS 22 (On Campus-Outpatient Hospital) with modifier GT.
Explanation: Current Medicare guidelines for telehealth require billing with the POS code that would have been used for an in-person visit, but with specific modifiers. However, for services where the patient is in their home, POS code 10 was introduced. Modifier 95 (Synchronous Telemedicine Service Rendered Via a Real-Time Interactive Audio and Video Telecommunications System) is the standard CPT modifier to indicate a telehealth service. POS 02 is for when the patient is at an originating site, not their home. POS 11 (Office) and POS 22 (Outpatient Hospital) reflect the location of the practitioner, but POS 10 is specific to the patient's location at home. The GT modifier is an older HCPCS modifier that has largely been replaced by 95 for most payers, including Medicare.

Question 7

A Medicare Part B patient has received a combination of physical therapy and speech-language pathology services during the calendar year, and their combined incurred expenses have reached $3,200. The patient requires further physical therapy for a new, medically necessary condition. The therapist's documentation clearly supports the need for continued care.

What is the MOST appropriate action for the therapist to take to ensure claims for the new condition are processed correctly?

  1. Discontinue therapy as the patient has exceeded the absolute financial limit for the year.
  2. Submit claims with the KX modifier appended to all CPT codes to attest to medical necessity. (correct answer)
  3. Have the patient sign an ABN for all future services, as they are now subject to medical review.
  4. Request a manual medical review from the Medicare Administrative Contractor before submitting further claims.
Explanation: The scenario describes a patient exceeding the targeted medical review threshold (e.g., $3,000, which is subject to change annually). This is not an absolute cap on services. When therapy expenses exceed the initial therapy threshold, the therapist must append the KX modifier to claim lines to attest that the services are medically necessary. Exceeding the higher, targeted medical review threshold means claims may be subject to review, but it does not require pre-approval or an ABN if the services are still considered medically necessary. The KX modifier is the essential first step.

Question 8

A patient is recovering from a stroke and is participating in a physical therapy session. The therapist guides the patient through a series of activities including practicing transfers from various surfaces, navigating a crowded room with a walker, and carrying a basket of laundry to simulate a home task. The session requires significant cognitive processing and problem-solving from the patient.

Which CPT code BEST represents the primary intervention provided in this session?

  1. 97110, Therapeutic Exercise.
  2. 97112, Neuromuscular Re-education.
  3. 97116, Gait Training.
  4. 97530, Therapeutic Activities. (correct answer)
Explanation: This question requires differentiating between similar CPT codes. 97530, Therapeutic Activities, is defined as the use of dynamic activities to improve functional performance. It typically involves multi-faceted tasks that simulate real-world activities, such as bending, lifting, carrying, reaching, and transfers. The described session, with its focus on practicing real-life tasks like transfers and carrying laundry, fits this definition best. While it contains elements of exercise (97110), balance/proprioception (97112), and walking (97116), the overarching goal and method are functional and activity-based, making 97530 the most appropriate code.

Question 9

During a routine internal audit, a clinic manager discovers that one therapist has been billing a Level 3 evaluation (CPT 97163) for nearly all new patients, including those with simple, uncomplicated conditions like a lateral ankle sprain. The documentation for these patients does not consistently support a high level of clinical complexity.

From a compliance perspective, this billing pattern is MOST indicative of which of the following?

  1. Fraud, because it involves intentional deception for financial gain.
  2. Abuse, because the actions are inconsistent with sound fiscal or medical practices. (correct answer)
  3. Waste, because it represents an overutilization of services.
  4. A coding error, because it is likely an unintentional mistake in CPT code selection.
Explanation: This scenario best fits the definition of abuse. Abuse involves actions that are improper or inconsistent with accepted fiscal, business, or medical practices, resulting in unnecessary cost or reimbursement. The pattern of 'upcoding' evaluations without supporting documentation fits this definition. While it could be an unintentional error, a consistent pattern suggests a problem. It is not necessarily 'fraud' unless clear intent to deceive can be proven. 'Waste' is a broader term for overutilization, but 'abuse' more specifically describes the improper billing practice itself. The consistency of the pattern makes 'coding error' less likely.

Question 10

A Medicare Part B patient receives a physical therapy session that includes 40 minutes of one-on-one therapeutic activities (97530) and a 15-minute application of an unattended hot pack (97010).

How many total units should be billed for this session?

  1. 2 units
  2. 3 units
  3. 4 units (correct answer)
  4. 5 units
Explanation: This question tests the distinction between timed and untimed codes. CPT 97010 (hot/cold packs) is an untimed, service-based code, which is always billed as 1 unit regardless of duration. CPT 97530 (therapeutic activities) is a timed code. The 40 minutes of therapeutic activities qualifies for 3 units based on the 8-minute rule (38-52 minutes = 3 units). To get the total units for the session, you add the units from the timed codes and the service-based codes: 3 units (timed) + 1 unit (untimed) = 4 total units.

Question 11

A physical therapist working in a state with direct access evaluates a patient who presents with left shoulder pain without a physician's referral. The patient is covered by a commercial PPO insurance plan. The therapist performs the evaluation and initiates treatment on the first visit.

Which of the following factors is MOST likely to be the primary determinant of whether the services will be reimbursed?

  1. The specific provisions of the patient's individual insurance policy. (correct answer)
  2. The therapist's documentation of medical necessity for the treatment.
  3. The state's direct access law permitting evaluation and treatment.
  4. Obtaining a physician's signature on the plan of care within 30 days.
Explanation: When you encounter questions about reimbursement for physical therapy services, remember that insurance coverage is ultimately governed by the specific terms and conditions of each individual policy, regardless of what state laws or professional standards might permit. The correct answer is A because insurance reimbursement decisions are primarily based on what the patient's specific policy covers. Even though direct access laws may permit PT evaluation and treatment without referral, and even when medical necessity is well-documented, the insurance company will only reimburse services that are explicitly covered under the patient's particular plan. PPO plans vary widely in their coverage provisions, deductibles, and requirements for PT services. Option B is incorrect because while documentation of medical necessity is important for justifying treatment, it doesn't guarantee reimbursement if the policy doesn't cover direct access PT services. Option C is wrong because state direct access laws establish the legal right to practice without referral, but they don't mandate insurance coverage - these are separate regulatory domains. Option D is incorrect because while some policies may require physician involvement, this isn't a universal requirement and wouldn't be the primary determinant across all insurance plans. The key distinction here is between what's legally permissible (state law), professionally appropriate (medical necessity), and financially covered (insurance policy terms). For the NPTE, remember that reimbursement questions often test your understanding that insurance coverage is contractual and policy-specific, not automatically tied to professional scope of practice or state regulations.

Question 12

A Medicare patient receives 20 minutes of therapeutic exercise (97110) and 20 minutes of neuromuscular re-education (97112) in an outpatient clinic. Due to the Multiple Procedure Payment Reduction (MPPR) policy, the second CPT code's practice expense component is reduced.

How does Medicare's MPPR policy apply to the reimbursement for these two codes?

  1. Full payment for the higher value code; 50% reduction on the total value of the second code.
  2. Full payment for the higher value code; 50% reduction on the practice expense (PE) component of the second code. (correct answer)
  3. Full payment for the first code billed; 50% reduction on the practice expense (PE) component of the second code.
  4. A 50% reduction is applied to the practice expense (PE) component of both codes.
Explanation: The MPPR policy for therapy services applies a payment reduction to the practice expense (PE) component of subsequent 'always therapy' CPT codes billed on the same day. Medicare pays 100% of the fee schedule amount for the CPT code with the highest PE value. For all subsequent CPT codes billed that day, Medicare pays 100% of the work and malpractice components but only 50% of the PE component. The reduction is not on the total value of the code, and it is applied to the code(s) with the lower PE value, not necessarily the second one billed.

Question 13

A patient is treated for a right ankle sprain. The therapist documents that they provided 1 unit of manual therapy (97140) and 1 unit of therapeutic exercise (97110). In the billing software, the therapist mistakenly enters the CPT code for an initial evaluation (97161) instead of 97110. The claim is submitted and paid.

This action BEST qualifies as which type of compliance issue?

  1. Upcoding, which is a form of fraud or abuse. (correct answer)
  2. Simple human error with no compliance implications if corrected immediately.
  3. Unbundling, as the evaluation code includes some exercise components.
  4. A violation of the Stark Law concerning provider referrals.
Explanation: Healthcare billing compliance issues center on accurate documentation and coding practices. When you encounter billing scenarios on the NPTE, focus on whether the submitted codes match the actual services provided and the intent behind any discrepancies. This scenario represents classic upcoding because the therapist billed for a more expensive service (initial evaluation, 97161) than what was actually provided (therapeutic exercise, 97110). Even though this was described as a mistake, upcoding constitutes fraud or abuse under healthcare compliance regulations regardless of intent. The claim was submitted and payment was received for services not rendered, which violates billing integrity requirements. Looking at the incorrect options: Option B is wrong because billing compliance violations don't disappear simply because they were unintentional - the impact on reimbursement and documentation integrity remains the same. Option C mischaracterizes the issue as unbundling, which involves separately billing for services that should be billed together as one comprehensive code; here, completely different services were involved. Option D incorrectly references the Stark Law, which specifically addresses physician self-referral prohibitions and has no relevance to coding errors between different therapy services. The key takeaway for the NPTE is that billing compliance questions focus on the action's impact rather than intent. Whether coding errors are intentional or accidental, submitting incorrect codes that result in inappropriate reimbursement constitutes fraud or abuse. Always ensure your documentation matches your billing codes exactly - this protects both patient care standards and legal compliance requirements.

Question 14

A 40-minute treatment session for a Medicare Part B patient is initiated by a physical therapist (PT) who provides 8 minutes of manual therapy. The PT then delegates the remainder of the session to a physical therapist assistant (PTA), who provides 32 minutes of therapeutic exercise.

How should this service be billed to Medicare to ensure compliance with supervision and reimbursement rules?

  1. Bill all services under the PT's NPI number without any modifiers.
  2. Bill the PTA-provided services with the CQ modifier, subject to a 15% payment reduction.
  3. Bill the PT-provided service with the GP modifier, and the PTA-provided services with the CQ modifier.
  4. Bill all services with the CQ modifier, as the PTA provided more than 10% of the total service. (correct answer)
Explanation: Medicare's 'de minimis' standard states that if a PTA provides more than 10% of a service (or more than 10% of the total timed minutes of a session), the CQ modifier must be appended to the CPT code(s) for those services, and they are subject to a 15% payment reduction. In this 40-minute session, the PTA provided 32 minutes (80%). Since this is well over the 10% threshold for the session as a whole, all timed CPT codes for the session must be billed with the CQ modifier. It is not appropriate to split the billing; the modifier applies to the entire service if the threshold is met.

Question 15

A physical therapist who is not enrolled with Medicare as a participating or non-participating provider wants to treat a Medicare beneficiary. The patient has been informed of the therapist's Medicare status and wishes to pay privately for physical therapy services.

To legally provide and accept private payment for services that would normally be covered by Medicare, what is the therapist's ONLY option?

  1. Have the patient sign an ABN form for all services.
  2. Formally 'opt-out' of Medicare and enter into a private contract with the patient. (correct answer)
  3. Bill the patient directly and provide them with a receipt to submit to Medicare for reimbursement.
  4. Enroll as a non-participating provider and accept the Medicare-approved amount as payment in full.
Explanation: Physical therapists, unlike some other practitioners, cannot informally treat Medicare beneficiaries on a cash-pay basis for covered services. The only legal mechanism is to formally 'opt-out' of the Medicare program. This involves filing an affidavit with Medicare, agreeing not to receive any payment from Medicare for any service for a two-year period. The therapist must then enter into a specific private contract with the Medicare beneficiary before providing services. Using an ABN is not applicable here as the issue is the provider's relationship with Medicare, not the medical necessity of a specific service. A non-participating provider must still submit claims to Medicare.

Question 16

A physical therapist is treating three patients, each with different conditions, simultaneously in a large gym space. The patients are performing their prescribed exercise programs. The therapist divides their attention among the three patients, providing intermittent instruction, cueing, and modifications to each one.

For a Medicare Part B beneficiary in this scenario, which CPT code and description is MOST appropriate for billing?

  1. 97150, Group Therapeutic Procedure, billed as one unit for the session. (correct answer)
  2. 97110, Therapeutic Exercise, billed for the total time spent with all patients.
  3. 97530, Therapeutic Activities, billed in 15-minute increments per patient.
  4. This scenario represents concurrent therapy, which cannot be billed to Medicare Part B.
Explanation: When you encounter Medicare billing scenarios involving multiple patients, you need to distinguish between different therapy delivery models and their corresponding CPT codes. The scenario describes group therapy - one therapist simultaneously treating multiple patients (three in this case) in the same space, providing intermittent guidance to each. This fits the definition of CPT code 97150 (Group Therapeutic Procedure), which is designed for situations where 2-6 patients receive services simultaneously, sharing the therapist's direct attention. Answer A correctly identifies this as group therapy billed as one unit for the entire session. Answer B is incorrect because 97110 (Therapeutic Exercise) is used for individual, one-on-one treatment sessions, not group settings. Billing it "for total time with all patients" misrepresents the service delivery model. Answer C incorrectly suggests 97530 (Therapeutic Activities) billed per patient. While 97530 involves functional activities, this code is also intended for individual treatment. More importantly, in group therapy, you don't bill separately for each patient - you bill one unit that covers the group session. Answer D confuses group therapy with concurrent therapy. Concurrent therapy involves treating multiple patients sequentially during overlapping time periods, which Medicare restricts. Group therapy, however, is a legitimate billable service under Medicare Part B when properly documented. Key takeaway for the NPTE: Remember that group therapy (97150) is distinct from concurrent therapy. Group therapy involves simultaneous treatment of multiple patients and is Medicare-compliant, while concurrent therapy involves overlapping individual treatments and faces Medicare restrictions.

Question 17

A patient is admitted to a Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF) for rehabilitation following a total knee arthroplasty and is covered under a Medicare Part A stay. The patient develops an unrelated acute foot problem requiring a specialized orthotic that must be fabricated by an outside orthotist.

Under Medicare Part A consolidated billing rules for an SNF, who is responsible for payment to the outside orthotist?

  1. The patient is responsible, as the orthotic is for a condition unrelated to the SNF admission diagnosis.
  2. Medicare Part B should be billed directly by the orthotist as a separate prosthetic device service.
  3. The Skilled Nursing Facility is responsible for arranging and paying the orthotist for the service. (correct answer)
  4. The hospital where the surgery was performed is responsible under the post-surgical global period.
Explanation: The Medicare Part A consolidated billing requirement mandates that the SNF itself is responsible for billing Medicare for the entirety of the services that a resident receives during a covered Part A stay. This includes most services provided by outside suppliers, such as orthotics. The SNF must pay the orthotist directly and then bill Medicare as part of the bundled Part A payment (PDPM). There are some specific exclusions, but orthotics provided during a Part A stay generally fall under this rule. Billing Part B directly or holding the patient responsible would be incorrect.

Question 18

A private outpatient physical therapy practice is participating in Medicare's Quality Payment Program (QPP) via the Merit-based Incentive Payment System (MIPS). The practice consists of five physical therapists. The practice administrator wants to ensure they avoid a negative payment adjustment.

Under the current MIPS framework for physical therapists, which performance category typically holds the MOST weight in determining the final MIPS score?

  1. Promoting Interoperability
  2. Cost
  3. Improvement Activities
  4. Quality (correct answer)
Explanation: For most physical therapists participating in MIPS, the Quality category carries the most weight, often accounting for the majority of the final score (e.g., 85% in some recent years). The Improvement Activities category has a smaller weight (e.g., 15%). The Cost and Promoting Interoperability categories are typically reweighted to zero for PTs, with their weight being reallocated to the Quality category. Therefore, focusing on successfully reporting quality measures is the most critical component for a PT practice to succeed under MIPS.

Question 19

A patient is being seen for physical therapy following a right total hip arthroplasty. The plan of care includes strengthening, range of motion, and gait training. After four weeks, the patient develops new symptoms of severe, non-mechanical low back pain with radiating numbness into the left leg, inconsistent with the hip diagnosis. The therapist performs a detailed neurological screening and other tests to assess this new problem.

Which of the following is the most appropriate billing action for the therapist to take for this visit?

  1. Bill a routine visit with standard CPT codes for the treatment provided.
  2. Bill for a re-evaluation (CPT 97164) in addition to any treatment provided. (correct answer)
  3. Discharge the patient from hip therapy and complete a new initial evaluation for back pain.
  4. Bill only for a re-evaluation (CPT 97164) and schedule treatment for the next visit.
Explanation: Billing for a re-evaluation (97164) is appropriate when there is a significant, unanticipated change in the patient's condition or functional status that requires the therapist to revise the plan of care. The onset of new, severe neurological symptoms unrelated to the original diagnosis meets this criterion. The therapist can bill for the re-evaluation and also for any separate, distinct treatment provided during the same visit. Discharging and initiating a new evaluation is unnecessary and inefficient. Billing a routine visit would not capture the additional assessment work required by the change in status.

Question 20

A physical therapy clinic is located in a rural area designated as a Health Professional Shortage Area (HPSA). The clinic submits claims to Medicare for services provided to its patients.

What is the MOST likely impact of the clinic's HPSA designation on its Medicare reimbursement?

  1. A 10% bonus payment is automatically added to their monthly Medicare reimbursements. (correct answer)
  2. The practice is exempt from the Multiple Procedure Payment Reduction (MPPR) policy.
  3. The practice is allowed to use a different, more favorable fee schedule for all CPT codes.
  4. The practice's claims are exempt from all forms of medical review and audits.
Explanation: Medicare provides an incentive program to encourage healthcare providers to practice in areas with a shortage of health professionals. For designated HPSAs, Medicare provides a 10% bonus payment. This bonus is typically paid quarterly and is calculated based on the amount Medicare paid for services during that period. The practice must append the AQ modifier to claims to indicate the service was provided in a HPSA. This designation does not affect the application of MPPR, the fee schedule used, or audit susceptibility.