Latin 2 Quiz: Distinguishing Perfect System Tenses
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Distinguishing Perfect System TensesQuestion 1 of 9

Postquam servi laborem confecerant, dominus eos laudavit.

The sentence uses two different past tenses. Which answer correctly identifies both verb forms and explains why the pluperfect is used for one of them rather than the perfect?

'Confecerant' is pluperfect because it describes an action completed before the main past event ('laudavit'), while 'laudavit' is perfect because it describes the main completed action; Latin regularly uses the pluperfect in postquam clauses to show prior completion.
'Confecerant' is perfect because -erant is simply an alternative perfect ending for third-person plural forms, while 'laudavit' is imperfect because it describes the master's habitual praise of his slaves during this period and therefore requires a continuous past tense.
'Confecerant' is imperfect because the slaves' labor was an ongoing background activity requiring a continuous tense, while 'laudavit' is perfect because the praise was a single completed act; the sentence thus contrasts an imperfect with a perfect in the main clause.
Both 'confecerant' and 'laudavit' are pluperfect, since both actions were fully completed before the time of narration; Latin consistently requires the pluperfect in both the subordinate and main clause whenever the conjunction 'postquam' introduces a temporal sequence.
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Latin 2 Quiz

Latin 2 Quiz: Distinguishing Perfect System Tenses

Practice Distinguishing Perfect System Tenses in Latin 2 with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Distinguishing Perfect System Tenses, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Latin 2.

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Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

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Question 1

Postquam servi laborem confecerant, dominus eos laudavit.

The sentence uses two different past tenses. Which answer correctly identifies both verb forms and explains why the pluperfect is used for one of them rather than the perfect?

  1. 'Confecerant' is pluperfect because it describes an action completed before the main past event ('laudavit'), while 'laudavit' is perfect because it describes the main completed action; Latin regularly uses the pluperfect in postquam clauses to show prior completion. (correct answer)
  2. 'Confecerant' is perfect because -erant is simply an alternative perfect ending for third-person plural forms, while 'laudavit' is imperfect because it describes the master's habitual praise of his slaves during this period and therefore requires a continuous past tense.
  3. 'Confecerant' is imperfect because the slaves' labor was an ongoing background activity requiring a continuous tense, while 'laudavit' is perfect because the praise was a single completed act; the sentence thus contrasts an imperfect with a perfect in the main clause.
  4. Both 'confecerant' and 'laudavit' are pluperfect, since both actions were fully completed before the time of narration; Latin consistently requires the pluperfect in both the subordinate and main clause whenever the conjunction 'postquam' introduces a temporal sequence.
Explanation: When you see two past tenses in the same Latin sentence, your first job is to identify which action happened first and which happened second. Latin has a precise tool for this: the pluperfect tense signals an action completed before another past action, while the perfect signals the main completed event itself. In this sentence, the slaves finished their work (confecerant) and then the master praised them (laudavit). Because the finishing happened before the praising, Latin uses the pluperfect for confecerant (perfect stem confec- + pluperfect endings -erant) and the perfect for laudavit. Crucially, the conjunction postquam ("after") frequently triggers this exact pattern — the verb in the postquam clause appears in the pluperfect to emphasize that the subordinate action was fully completed before the main verb's action began. Answer A captures this perfectly. Answer B is wrong on two counts: -erant is not an alternative perfect ending but a distinctly pluperfect ending, and laudavit is not imperfect — the -vit ending marks a perfect, not a habitual/ongoing action. Answer C misidentifies confecerant as imperfect; the imperfect uses endings like -bant, not -erant, and the slaves' labor is presented as completed, not ongoing. Answer D incorrectly calls laudavit pluperfect and invents a rule that postquam requires pluperfect in both clauses — in reality, only the subordinate verb takes the pluperfect. Your study tip: memorize that pluperfect = past before the past. When you spot postquam, immediately ask "which action came first?" — that verb gets the pluperfect.

Question 2

Puella, quae in horto sedebat, subito surrexit quod canem audierat.

The passage contains three verb forms: 'sedebat,' 'surrexit,' and 'audierat.' Which sequence correctly identifies all three tenses and reflects their temporal relationship?

  1. All three forms—'sedebat,' 'surrexit,' and 'audierat'—are past tense forms, but Latin does not systematically distinguish their relative temporal order through tense morphology alone; the sequence must be inferred entirely from context and conjunctions rather than verb endings.
  2. 'Sedebat' is perfect (a single completed act of sitting), 'surrexit' is imperfect (the rising was still in progress at the narrative moment), and 'audierat' is pluperfect (the earliest action); the temporal order runs: audierat → sedebat → surrexit.
  3. 'Sedebat' is imperfect (ongoing sitting as background), 'surrexit' is pluperfect (the rising had already been completed before the sitting began), and 'audierat' is perfect (a single completed act of hearing); the order runs: surrexit → audierat → sedebat.
  4. 'Sedebat' is imperfect (ongoing sitting), 'surrexit' is perfect (completed rising), and 'audierat' is pluperfect (the hearing had already occurred before the rising); the pluperfect marks the earliest action in the narrative sequence. (correct answer)
Explanation: When you encounter a Latin sentence with multiple past-tense verbs, your first task is to identify each verb's tense morphologically, then reconstruct the timeline those tenses create. Latin uses three past tenses with distinct temporal relationships: the imperfect (ongoing/background action), the perfect (single completed action), and the pluperfect (action completed before another past action). In this sentence, sedebat carries the classic imperfect ending -bat, signaling continuous, background action — the girl was sitting (ongoing). Surrexit uses the perfect stem with the ending -it, marking a single completed event: she rose up. Audierat combines a perfect stem with the pluperfect ending -erat, meaning the hearing was already finished before the rising occurred. This makes D correct: the temporal chain runs audierat (earliest) → sedebat (ongoing background) → surrexit (completed foreground event). The pluperfect marks the earliest point in the narrative. Answer A is tempting but wrong — it falsely claims Latin cannot encode relative time through morphology alone. The pluperfect ending -erat is precisely designed to signal "further back in the past." Answer B swaps sedebat and surrexit: it calls sedebat perfect and surrexit imperfect, which reverses the actual endings and their meanings entirely. Answer C compounds multiple errors — it labels surrexit pluperfect, audierat perfect, and constructs a timeline that contradicts both the morphology and the sentence's logic (quod explains why she rose, so the hearing must precede the rising). Your study tip: memorize the three past-tense signals as a set — -bat (imperfect), -it (perfect), -erat (pluperfect) — and always ask "which action happened furthest back?" That's your pluperfect anchor.

Question 3

Milites in castris diu manebant. Tandem dux ad portam venit et clamavit: 'Hostes urbem iam ceperunt!'

In the passage above, which statement best describes the relationship between 'manebant' and 'ceperunt' in terms of tense and aspect?

  1. 'Manebant' is imperfect, indicating ongoing action in the past, while 'ceperunt' is perfect, indicating a completed action; the soldiers were still staying when the capture had already been accomplished, as 'iam' reinforces. (correct answer)
  2. 'Manebant' is perfect, indicating a single completed act of staying, while 'ceperunt' is imperfect, indicating the enemies were in the process of capturing the city; both verbs thus describe simultaneous ongoing events in the past narrative.
  3. Both 'manebant' and 'ceperunt' are imperfect, since both describe repeated or ongoing past actions; Latin uses the imperfect for all plural subjects regardless of whether the action was completed or continuous.
  4. 'Manebant' is pluperfect, indicating the soldiers had already finished staying before the speech occurred, while 'ceperunt' is also pluperfect, indicating the capture preceded the soldiers' departure from the camp.
Explanation: When reading Latin narrative, one of the most important skills is recognizing how different verb tenses interact to paint a picture of time. Latin distinguishes carefully between ongoing past action (imperfect) and completed past action (perfect), and good readers track how these tenses relate to one another within a passage. Here, manebant is third-person plural imperfect active of maneo — the -ba- infix is your signal for imperfect. It describes the soldiers' staying as a continuous, background action: they were remaining in camp over a stretch of time. Then ceperunt is third-person plural perfect active of capio — the perfect stem cep- plus the ending -erunt marks a single, completed event: the enemies captured (and it is done). The word iam ("already") clinches the interpretation: the capture is presented as an accomplished fact at the moment the general speaks. This makes A the correct answer — the imperfect provides the ongoing background, while the perfect punctuates it with a finished event. B gets the tenses exactly backwards, misidentifying manebant as perfect and ceperunt as imperfect — if you confuse these forms, you reverse the entire meaning of the scene. C is wrong on two counts: both verbs are not imperfect, and Latin absolutely does not default to imperfect for plural subjects — aspect, not number, drives tense choice. D invents a pluperfect reading for both verbs; the pluperfect requires -era- or -erat endings, which appear nowhere in this passage. Your study tip: memorize the imperfect marker -ba- and the perfect endings -i, -isti, -it, -imus, -istis, -erunt cold — spotting tense by form is the foundation of every passage-analysis question like this one.

Question 4

Which of the following Latin verb forms is pluperfect, and how can it be distinguished from a superficially similar imperfect form?

  1. 'Portaverant' is pluperfect because it is built on the perfect stem 'portav-' plus the 3rd person plural ending '-erant'; however, 'portaverat' (3rd singular) is imperfect rather than pluperfect, because the singular ending '-erat' belongs to the imperfect indicative paradigm of regular Latin verbs.
  2. 'Portabat' is pluperfect: the '-bat' ending signals a prior completed action in Latin whenever it follows a stem ending in a vowel, while 'portaverat' is actually imperfect because the '-v-' infix in the stem marks an ongoing, continuous verbal action rather than completion.
  3. 'Portavit' is pluperfect: when a Latin verb already contains the '-v-' element in its perfect stem, the '-vit' ending pushes the action further back into the past than a simple perfect ending would, making such forms pluperfect by definition in the first conjugation.
  4. 'Portaverat' is pluperfect: it is built on the perfect stem 'portav-' plus the ending '-erat,' which is the 3rd person singular of the imperfect of 'esse' functioning as a pluperfect marker; the imperfect 'portabat,' by contrast, uses the present stem 'porta-' plus the imperfect suffix '-bat.' (correct answer)
Explanation: When distinguishing Latin tenses, always ask two questions: which stem is being used, and which endings are attached? The pluperfect and imperfect can look deceptively similar, but they are built on entirely different foundations. The pluperfect indicative active is formed by taking the perfect stem and adding endings that mirror the imperfect of esse (-eram, -eras, -erat, -eramus, -eratis, -erant). So portaverat breaks down as: perfect stem portav- + -erat (3rd singular imperfect of esse) = "he/she had carried." That's your pluperfect marker — a perfect stem combined with those esse-derived endings. The imperfect, by contrast, uses the present stem (porta-) plus the suffix -bat (or -bam, -bas, etc.), giving you portabat = "he/she was carrying." Answer D captures this distinction precisely and is correct. Answer A contains a dangerous half-truth: portaverant is indeed pluperfect (3rd plural), but the claim that portaverat (3rd singular) is imperfect is flat wrong — both forms are pluperfect, just different persons. Answer B misidentifies portabat as pluperfect and invents a false rule about -bat following a vowel stem. The -bat ending always signals the imperfect, full stop. Answer C confuses the perfect with the pluperfect. Portavit is simply the perfect indicative ("he/she carried/has carried"), not pluperfect. The -v- infix does not push a form "further back" — that's not how Latin morphology works. Your study tip: memorize the pluperfect as perfect stem + imperfect of esse. If you know your esse forms, you'll always recognize the pluperfect endings.

Question 5

Romani, qui multos annos pugnaverant, pacem tandem petebant. Legati autem iam discesserant antequam senatus respondit.

In this passage, 'pugnaverant,' 'petebant,' 'discesserant,' and 'respondit' each appear. A student claims that 'pugnaverant' and 'discesserant' are both pluperfect but serve different narrative functions. Which answer best evaluates this claim?

  1. The claim is incorrect: both 'pugnaverant' and 'discesserant' are actually perfect tense, since the -erant ending is an archaic variant of the standard perfect -erunt; both forms simply describe fully completed actions without necessarily implying reference to any prior past event.
  2. The claim is partially wrong: 'pugnaverant' is pluperfect, but 'discesserant' is imperfect because antequam clauses in Latin regularly require the imperfect tense in the subordinate clause to indicate that the earlier action was still ongoing at the moment the senate gave its response.
  3. The claim is correct: both are pluperfect (perfect stem + -erant), but 'pugnaverant' provides extended background context (the Romans had been fighting for many years before seeking peace), while 'discesserant' marks a specific action completed before 'respondit,' showing strict temporal priority in the antequam clause. (correct answer)
  4. The claim is correct that both are pluperfect in morphology, but the student errs in asserting different functions; Latin pluperfect forms carry identical temporal and narrative value in all clause types, regardless of the conjunction or syntactic context in which they appear.
Explanation: When you encounter Latin verb tense questions, your first move should be identifying the morphology, then asking why that tense appears in its specific syntactic context — because the same tense can serve very different narrative purposes. Both pugnaverant and discesserant are formed with the perfect stem plus the pluperfect active endings (-eram, -eras, -erat, -eramus, -eratis, -erant), confirming both are pluperfect. Answer C is correct because it recognizes not only the shared morphology but also the distinct functions. Pugnaverant provides background narrative context — the Romans had been fighting for many years, establishing the situation before they sought peace. Discesserant, paired with antequam ("before"), marks a precisely sequenced prior event: the envoys had already left before the senate responded (respondit, perfect). This is the pluperfect doing two different jobs in one passage. Answer A is wrong because -erant is not an archaic perfect ending — that's a complete fabrication. The third-person plural perfect active ends in -erunt or -ere, never -erant. Don't confuse these. Answer B incorrectly claims discesserant is imperfect. Antequam clauses can take imperfect subjunctive in some constructions, but discesserant is clearly indicative pluperfect, expressing a completed action before another past event — exactly the pluperfect's core function. Answer D is tempting if you know both forms are pluperfect, but it wrongly flattens all pluperfect usage into one identical function. Context and syntax always shape how a tense operates. Study tip: Always ask two questions — what is the form? and what work is it doing in this sentence? Tense identification is only half the task.

Question 6

Dum agricola in agro laborabat, filius eius ad villam cucurrit quod lupum viderat.

The verbs 'laborabat,' 'cucurrit,' and 'viderat' represent three different past tenses. Which analysis correctly identifies all three AND explains why the pluperfect rather than the perfect is grammatically appropriate for 'viderat' in this sentence?

  1. 'Laborabat' is imperfect (ongoing labor), 'cucurrit' is pluperfect (the run had been completed before the father's labor ended), and 'viderat' is perfect (a single completed act of seeing that was contemporaneous with the running rather than prior to it).
  2. 'Laborabat' is imperfect (ongoing labor), 'cucurrit' is perfect (completed run), and 'viderat' is also perfect because 'quod' causal clauses in Latin always require the perfect tense in the subordinate clause to match the tense of the main verb, regardless of the relative timing of the actions.
  3. 'Laborabat' is imperfect (ongoing labor as background), 'cucurrit' is perfect (the completed run is the main narrative event), and 'viderat' is pluperfect because the seeing of the wolf had to precede the running—it was the cause and therefore an anterior past action, appropriately marked by the pluperfect. (correct answer)
  4. 'Laborabat' is pluperfect (the labor had already been completed before the narrative moment), 'cucurrit' is perfect (the run is the main event), and 'viderat' is imperfect because causal 'quod' clauses require the imperfect to show that the motivation was an ongoing state rather than a prior completed act.
Explanation: When you encounter multiple past tenses in a single Latin sentence, your first job is to map the relative timing of events, not just identify each tense in isolation. Latin uses three past tenses for a reason: imperfect for ongoing background action, perfect for completed foreground events, and pluperfect for actions completed before another past action. In this sentence, the imperfect laborabat correctly describes the father's continuous, ongoing labor—it's the backdrop. The perfect cucurrit marks the son's run as the main completed narrative event. Now ask yourself: could the son run because he saw the wolf at the same moment he ran? No—the seeing had to happen first; it caused the running. Latin signals this "further back in the past" relationship with the pluperfect, and viderat does exactly that. Answer C correctly identifies all three tenses and articulates this cause-precedes-effect logic. Answer A misidentifies cucurrit as pluperfect and viderat as perfect—it actually reverses the logical relationship, making the run the earlier event and the seeing simultaneous with it, which contradicts the sentence's causal structure. Answer B gets the first two tenses right but invents a false rule: quod causal clauses carry no automatic tense requirement. What governs tense here is the sequence of events, not the conjunction. Answer D misidentifies laborabat as pluperfect—the imperfect, not the pluperfect, signals ongoing action—and wrongly claims quod clauses demand the imperfect. Your study tip: whenever you see quod (causal), ask when that cause happened relative to the main verb. If it came first, expect the pluperfect.

Question 7

Senex narravit se multa mala vidisse. Iuvenes, qui eum audiebant, mirati sunt quod numquam talia passi erant.

This passage contains 'narravit,' 'audiebant,' 'mirati sunt,' and 'passi erant.' Which answer correctly identifies the tense of each form and appropriately accounts for the deponent verbs 'mirati sunt' and 'passi erant'?

  1. 'Narravit' is perfect active; 'audiebant' is imperfect active; 'mirati sunt' is present passive because the present tense of 'esse' combined with any participle always signals a present passive construction in Latin; 'passi erant' is perfect passive because the imperfect of 'esse' combined with a participle invariably signals the perfect passive tense.
  2. 'Narravit' is perfect active; 'audiebant' is imperfect active; 'mirati sunt' is perfect deponent ('miror' uses a perfect passive participle with present 'sunt' to express active perfect meaning: 'they marveled'); 'passi erant' is pluperfect deponent ('patior' uses a perfect passive participle with imperfect 'erant' to express active pluperfect meaning: 'they had suffered'). (correct answer)
  3. 'Narravit' is imperfect because the -vit ending signals repeated or habitual past action; 'audiebant' is perfect active; 'mirati sunt' is pluperfect deponent because 'sunt' functions as an irregular pluperfect form of 'esse' in deponent constructions; 'passi erant' is imperfect because 'erant' alone, without a true perfect stem, marks the standard imperfect tense.
  4. 'Narravit' is perfect active; 'audiebant' is imperfect active; 'mirati sunt' is pluperfect deponent because all compound tenses formed with 'sum' are pluperfect in Latin; 'passi erant' is perfect deponent because 'erant' marks the earlier, more fully completed stage of the action already described by 'mirati sunt.'
Explanation: When you encounter a Latin passage mixing regular and deponent verbs, your first job is to separate two questions: (1) what tense is this form? and (2) is this verb deponent, meaning it looks passive but carries active meaning? Start with the regular verbs. Narravit has the perfect active ending -vit (narrā + v + it), so it's perfect active: "narrated." Audiebant uses the imperfect stem with the -bant ending, making it imperfect active: "were listening." Those two are straightforward. The trickier forms are the deponent verbs. Deponent verbs borrow passive forms to express active meaning — this is their defining feature. Mirati sunt combines the perfect passive participle miratus with present sunt. For a regular verb, this would be perfect passive ("they were marveled at"), but miror is deponent, so this construction instead expresses perfect active meaning: "they marveled." Similarly, passi erant combines the perfect passive participle passus with imperfect erant. For a regular verb, this would be pluperfect passive, but because patior is deponent, it expresses pluperfect active meaning: "they had suffered." Answer B captures this correctly. Answer A fails because it ignores deponency entirely, misreading both forms as true passives. Answer C makes two factual errors: -vit is a perfect ending, not imperfect, and sunt is simply present tense of esse, not some irregular pluperfect. Answer D incorrectly claims all sum compounds are pluperfect, then confuses the two deponent forms with each other. Your study tip: memorize the deponent pattern — perfect participle + present esse = perfect active; perfect participle + imperfect esse = pluperfect active. These combinations look passive but never are for deponent verbs.

Question 8

A teacher presents the paradigm of 'amaveram, amaveras, amaverat, amaveramus, amaveratis, amaverant' and asks students to identify the tense. One student says it is perfect because it contains the perfect stem 'amav-.' Another says it is pluperfect. A third says it is future perfect. Which response correctly adjudicates among these claims?

  1. The first student is correct: the paradigm is perfect active indicative. The endings -eram through -erant are an alternative set of perfect endings used specifically when the perfect stem ends in '-v-,' replacing the standard -erunt ending; both sets carry the same perfect tense meaning.
  2. The second student is correct: the paradigm is pluperfect active indicative. The perfect stem 'amav-' confirms membership in the perfect system, but the endings -eram, -eras, -erat, -eramus, -eratis, -erant are the imperfect tense of 'esse'; their combination with the perfect stem produces the pluperfect, meaning 'I had loved,' 'you had loved,' and so on. (correct answer)
  3. The third student is correct: the paradigm is future perfect active indicative. The '-er-' element embedded in the endings regularly signals future time in Latin, and when this element combines with a perfect stem it consistently produces the future perfect meaning 'I will have loved,' 'you will have loved,' and so forth.
  4. All three students are partially correct: Latin does not maintain a strict morphological distinction between perfect, pluperfect, and future perfect in the active voice; readers must rely entirely on context and accompanying adverbs to determine which of these three tenses a given form represents.
Explanation: When you encounter a Latin verb paradigm and need to identify its tense, your first move should be to analyze the endings systematically — the perfect stem alone is not enough, because all three tenses in the perfect system (perfect, pluperfect, and future perfect) share it. The paradigm amaveram, amaveras, amaverat, amaveramus, amaveratis, amaverant breaks down as perfect stem (amav-) + connective vowel + endings. Those endings — -eram, -eras, -erat, -eramus, -eratis, -erant — are exactly the imperfect tense forms of the verb esse (to be): eram, eras, erat, eramus, eratis, erant. In Latin, the pluperfect active indicative is formed precisely by combining the perfect stem with these imperfect-of-esse endings, producing the meaning "I had loved," "you had loved," etc. So B is correct. A is wrong because it invents a fictional alternate set of perfect endings. The endings -eram through -erant do not belong to the perfect tense; the actual perfect active endings are -i, -isti, -it, -imus, -istis, -erunt. C contains a kernel of truth — the -er- element does appear in the future perfect (amavero, amaveris…) — but it misidentifies these specific forms. The future perfect uses endings derived from the future of esse (-ero, -eris, -erit…), not the imperfect. D is simply false; Latin has clear, consistent morphological distinctions between all three tenses in the perfect system. Your study tip: memorize the imperfect of esse (eram, eras, erat…) and the future of esse (ero, eris, erit…), because they are the building blocks of the pluperfect and future perfect respectively.

Question 9

A Latin student sees the verb form 'scripserant' and must determine its tense. The student reasons: 'The stem is scrips-, the ending is -erant, so this must be perfect because -erunt/-ere are perfect endings.' What is the error in the student's reasoning, and what is the correct identification?

  1. The student confuses the perfect ending '-erunt' with the pluperfect ending '-erant'; '-erant' appended to a perfect stem signals the pluperfect, meaning the action had been completed before another past action, so 'scripserant' is pluperfect (they had written), not perfect. (correct answer)
  2. The student is correct that '-erant' signals the perfect tense; however, 'scripserant' is actually classified as imperfect because 'scribo' irregularly forms its past continuous tense using the perfect stem rather than the standard present stem.
  3. The student correctly identifies the perfect stem 'scrips-' but should recognize that '-erant' is an imperfect ending grafted onto the perfect stem, making 'scripserant' a mixed-category form that Latin grammarians classify under the imperfect system.
  4. The student's analysis is entirely correct; 'scripserant' is perfect active, 3rd person plural, because '-erunt' and '-erant' are fully interchangeable perfect endings in classical Latin prose with no difference in tense or meaning.
Explanation: When analyzing Latin verb forms, you need to check not just the stem but also the exact ending — a one-letter difference can signal an entirely different tense. The perfect active system in Latin uses the perfect stem (here, scrips-) as its base for three related tenses: perfect, pluperfect, and future perfect. The confusion in this question hinges on distinguishing -ērunt (perfect, 3rd plural: "they wrote/have written") from -erant (pluperfect, 3rd plural: "they had written"). The ending -erant is built by adding the imperfect of esse (-eram, -eras, -erat, -eramus, -eratis, -erant) to the perfect stem, which is precisely how Latin constructs the pluperfect. So scripserant = scrips- + -erant = pluperfect, meaning "they had written." Answer A correctly identifies this error and provides the right analysis. Answer B is invented nonsense — Latin has no category called "imperfect formed from the perfect stem," and scribo forms nothing irregularly here. Answer C invents a fictional "mixed-category" classification that no Latin grammar recognizes; the pluperfect is a standard, well-defined tense, not a hybrid. Answer D is dangerously wrong: -erunt and -erant are absolutely not interchangeable — they differ in both tense and meaning, which is exactly the point of this question. A reliable memory trick: if you see a perfect stem followed by a form of eram (the imperfect of esse), you're looking at the pluperfect. Drill the six pluperfect endings (-eram, -eras, -erat, -eramus, -eratis, -erant) separately from the perfect endings to avoid this classic mix-up.