Latin 1 Quiz: Future Tense
20 questions · exam conditions
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Future TenseQuestion 1 of 20

Translate the Latin word laudabitis.

you all will praise
you all are praising
you all have praised
you all were praising
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Latin 1 Quiz

Latin 1 Quiz: Future Tense

Practice Future Tense in Latin 1 with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Future Tense, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Latin 1.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

Translate the Latin word laudabitis.

  1. you all will praise (correct answer)
  2. you all are praising
  3. you all have praised
  4. you all were praising
Explanation: Laudabitis is second-person plural future active indicative: the -bi- marks future time, and -tis means 'you all.' So it means 'you all will praise.' The tempting error is 'you all are praising,' which would be the present form laudatis, dropping the future marker -bi-.

Question 2

Which verb form is NOT a future tense?

  1. amabunt
  2. habebit
  3. audies
  4. vident (correct answer)
Explanation: Amabunt, habebit, and audies all show future tense endings (-bunt, -bit, -es), so they are future forms. Vident, however, is the present tense of videre, meaning they see. If you picked audies, watch out: it does end in -es, but it is the future of audire, not a present form.

Question 3

Choose the Latin form that means 'we will rule'.

  1. regimus
  2. regebamus
  3. regemus (correct answer)
  4. reximus
Explanation: Rego is a third-conjugation verb, so its future tense uses the ending -emus on the present stem: regemus means 'we will rule.' The tempting form regimus looks similar but is present tense, meaning 'we rule,' not future.

Question 4

Translate the Latin word monebunt.

  1. they will warn (correct answer)
  2. they are warning
  3. they have warned
  4. they were warning
Explanation: Monebunt is the third-person plural future active indicative of moneo. The -b- in the ending marks future tense, so the translation is "they will warn." The tempting mistake is "they are warning," which is present tense (monent), not future.

Question 5

Choose the Latin form that means 'you (singular) will come'.

  1. venis
  2. venies (correct answer)
  3. veniebas
  4. venisti
Explanation: The future tense of venire in the second person singular is venies, so it means 'you will come.' The most tempting wrong choice is venis, which looks close but is present tense and means 'you are coming' or 'you come,' not future.

Question 6

What does audient mean?

  1. They have heard.
  2. They are hearing.
  3. They were hearing.
  4. They will hear. (correct answer)
Explanation: Audient is the third-person plural future tense of audio, so it means "they will hear." The tempting mistake is "they are hearing," which would be audiunt, the present tense form, not audient.

Question 7

Which verb is NOT future tense?

  1. videbimus
  2. portabunt
  3. monebant (correct answer)
  4. venient
Explanation: Videbimus, portabunt, and venient all use future-tense endings (-bimus, -bunt, -ent/-ient), so they refer to actions that will happen. Monebant, however, uses the imperfect ending -bant, showing a past ongoing action ('they were warning'). The tempting wrong choice is venient, because it lacks the -b- future marker; but as a fourth-conjugation verb, -ent is its future ending.

Question 8

Which sentence has a future tense verb?

  1. Puella epistulam mittit.
  2. Puella epistulam mittet. (correct answer)
  3. Puella epistulam mittebat.
  4. Puella epistulam misit.
Explanation: Mittet is the future tense form of mittere, meaning 'will send.' Mittit is present, mittebat is imperfect past, and misit is perfect past. The tempting trap is misit, which means 'sent' and is a completed past action, not future.

Question 9

Which Latin form means you (pl.) will praise?

  1. laudatis
  2. laudabitis (correct answer)
  3. laudabatis
  4. laudavistis
Explanation: The future tense of laudare uses the marker -bi- before the personal ending. For the second person plural, that gives laudabitis, meaning you (pl.) will praise. The tempting error is laudatis, which is present tense and means you (pl.) praise or are praising, not the future.

Question 10

Translate: milites current.

  1. The soldiers will run. (correct answer)
  2. The soldier will run.
  3. The soldiers were running.
  4. The soldiers are running.
Explanation: Milites is plural ('soldiers'), and current is the third-person plural future indicative of currere, so it means 'they will run.' The tempting error is 'The soldiers are running' because current resembles an English present, but that would be currunt in Latin.

Question 11

Which of the following Latin verb forms is in the FUTURE tense, third-person singular?

  1. videt
  2. videbat
  3. videbit (correct answer)
  4. vidit
Explanation: When identifying Latin verb tenses, your most reliable tool is the tense marker — the syllable inserted between the verb stem and the personal ending. For video (to see), the present stem is vide-, and what comes after it tells you everything about tense. The future tense in Latin's second conjugation is formed by adding -bi- (or -bu- before -nt) between the stem and the ending. So vide-bi-t = stem + future marker + third-person singular ending = "he/she/it will see." That makes C) videbit the correct answer. Now let's dismantle the distractors. A) videt is present tense, third-person singular — the -t ending with no tense marker means "he/she sees" right now. Students often confuse this with the future because it looks deceptively simple. B) videbat uses -ba-, which is the imperfect tense marker, meaning "he/she was seeing" or "used to see" — a past action, not a future one. It's easy to mix up -ba- (imperfect) and -bi- (future) since they look similar. D) vidit is perfect tense, third-person singular, meaning "he/she saw" — a completed past action. The shortened stem vowel and -it ending are hallmarks of the perfect. A sharp study tip: memorize the Latin tense markers as a sequence — present (no marker), imperfect (-ba-), future (-bi-/-bo-), perfect (-i- in stem). Drilling these four will help you crack most tense identification questions instantly.

Question 12

Marcus ad forum ambulat et amico suo dicit: 'Cras ego ad villam patris mei ibo et ibi manebo.'

In the passage above, what is the correct translation of the verb 'ibo'?

  1. I went, indicating a completed action in the past
  2. I will go, indicating an action that will happen in the future (correct answer)
  3. I was going, indicating an ongoing action in the past
  4. I go, indicating a habitual action in the present
Explanation: When you encounter a Latin verb translation question, your first move should be to identify the tense by analyzing the verb's ending and stem. Latin has distinct forms for past, present, and future — and ibo is a classic example of a future tense verb. Ibo comes from the irregular verb ire (to go). Its future tense forms follow a recognizable pattern: ibo, ibis, ibit, ibimus, ibitis, ibunt. The -b- infix combined with the personal ending -o (first person singular) signals future tense, meaning "I will go." This makes B the correct answer — ibo indicates an action that has not yet happened but will occur. Notice the context reinforces this: the passage includes cras ("tomorrow"), a time word that logically pairs with a future action. Looking at the wrong answers: A describes a perfect tense translation ("I went"), which would use a form like ivi or ii — not ibo. The perfect tense signals a completed past action, which doesn't fit here. C suggests an imperfect tense ("I was going"), which conveys ongoing or repeated past action and would appear as ibam in Latin — again, a completely different form. D proposes a present tense translation ("I go"), which would be eo in Latin, not ibo. A helpful tip: always scan the sentence for time words like cras (tomorrow), heri (yesterday), or nunc (now) — they act as built-in clues that confirm which tense you're looking for before you even analyze the verb form itself.

Question 13

Which of the following is the correct first-person singular future active indicative form of 'scribo' (to write), a third-conjugation verb?

  1. scribebo, because third-conjugation verbs add '-bo' directly to the infinitive stem to form the future tense
  2. scribam, because third-conjugation verbs form the future with '-am' in the first-person singular rather than '-bo' (correct answer)
  3. scribibo, because the '-i-' of the present stem combines with '-bo' to create the future marker in third-conjugation verbs
  4. scribabam, because the future tense is built by adding '-ba-' to the present stem before the personal ending '-m'
Explanation: When forming the future tense in Latin, the conjugation of the verb determines which future marker you use — and this is exactly what this question tests. Third-conjugation verbs like scribo behave differently from first and second conjugation verbs, so you cannot apply a one-size-fits-all rule. For third-conjugation verbs, the future tense is formed by dropping the present infinitive ending to find the stem (scrib-), then adding the future marker -a- in the first-person singular and -e- in all other persons, followed by the personal endings. So scribo becomes scribam in the first-person singular future — "I will write." This makes B the correct answer. Here is why the distractors mislead you: A incorrectly applies the first/second conjugation future formula (adding -bo to the stem), which works for verbs like amabo or monebo but never for third-conjugation verbs. C invents a hybrid form scribibo that does not exist in Latin; the -i- does not combine with -bo in any standard paradigm. D confuses the future with the imperfect tense — the -ba- infix is the imperfect marker (e.g., scribebam, "I was writing"), not a future indicator. Scribabam is doubly wrong because it misapplies even the imperfect stem. A reliable study tip: memorize the future tense by conjugation group. First/second use -bo, -bis, -bit; third/fourth use -am, -es, -et. Keeping these two patterns separate will save you from the most common traps on this topic.

Question 14

Magister discipulis dicit: 'Cras vos multa de Roma legitis et postea de historia Romana dicetis.'

The passage contains two verbs: 'legitis' and 'dicetis.' Based on their endings, which statement correctly identifies the tense of each verb?

  1. 'Legitis' is present tense (you all read), and 'dicetis' is future tense (you all will say), because '-etis' is the second-person plural future ending for third-conjugation verbs. (correct answer)
  2. 'Legitis' is future tense (you all will read), and 'dicetis' is present tense (you all say), because '-itis' marks future action while '-etis' marks present action in Latin.
  3. Both 'legitis' and 'dicetis' are present tense, because both end in '-tis,' which is consistently the second-person plural present ending in all conjugations.
  4. Both 'legitis' and 'dicetis' are future tense, because the context word 'cras' (tomorrow) forces all verbs in the sentence to be interpreted as future actions.
Explanation: When reading Latin verbs, the ending tells you both who is acting and when — so breaking verbs into their components is essential. Here, both verbs are second-person plural, but they belong to different conjugations, which changes how their tenses are formed. "Legitis" comes from legere, a third-conjugation verb. In the third conjugation, the present tense second-person plural ending is -itis (leg-itis = "you all read"). Meanwhile, "dicetis" comes from dicere, also third conjugation, but notice the -e- before the personal ending: -etis signals the future tense in third-conjugation verbs (dic-etis = "you all will say"). This makes answer A correct — "legitis" is present, "dicetis" is future — and it fits perfectly with the context: the teacher says cras (tomorrow) and tells students to first read, then later speak about Roman history. Answer B reverses the logic entirely, wrongly claiming "-itis" marks future and "-etis" marks present — the exact opposite of how Latin conjugation works. Answer C makes the mistake of treating "-tis" as a universal present-tense marker regardless of what vowel precedes it; but that preceding vowel is precisely what distinguishes present from future in the third conjugation. Answer D commits a grammar error by letting a context word ("cras") override actual verb morphology — Latin tense is encoded in the verb's form, not borrowed from surrounding adverbs. Your study tip: always look at the full ending, not just the final "-tis." In third-conjugation verbs, the vowel before "-tis" is your tense signal — -i- for present, -e- for future.

Question 15

Cicero in epistula scribit: 'Amici mei Romam non venient; ego igitur solus in foro manebo et orationem meam dicam.'

The passage contains three future tense verbs: 'venient,' 'manebo,' and 'dicam.' Which of the following correctly explains why 'manebo' uses '-bo' while 'venient' uses '-ent' and 'dicam' uses '-am'?

  1. 'Manebo' uses '-bo' because it refers to a physical location (staying in the forum), and Latin uses different future markers to distinguish actions of movement from actions of speech or arrival.
  2. 'Manebo' uses '-bo' because it is first-person singular; all Latin verbs use '-bo' in the first-person singular future regardless of conjugation, while plural and other persons use '-ent' or '-am.'
  3. 'Manebo' uses '-bo' because 'maneo' ends in '-eo' in the first-person present, which always signals that '-bo' will be used in the future tense, whereas verbs not ending in '-eo' use other future markers.
  4. 'Manebo' uses '-bo' because 'maneo' is a second-conjugation verb, which takes the '-bo/-bi-/-bu-' future marker; 'venient' and 'dicam' use different endings because 'venio' and 'dico' are fourth and third conjugation respectively, which form the future with '-am/-es/-et' endings. (correct answer)
Explanation: When you see Latin future tense verbs behaving differently, your first instinct should be to ask: which conjugation does each verb belong to? Latin future tense formation is not uniform — it splits along conjugation lines, and mixing those up is exactly what these distractors want you to do. In Latin, first and second conjugation verbs form the future using -bo, -bis, -bit, -bimus, -bitis, -bunt. Third and fourth conjugation verbs instead use -am, -es, -et, -emus, -etis, -ent. So maneo (to stay) belongs to the second conjugation — its infinitive is manēre — which is why it takes manebo in the first-person singular future. Dico (to say) is third conjugation (dicere), giving dicam, and venio (to come) is fourth conjugation (venire), giving venient in the third-person plural. Answer D captures this reasoning precisely and is correct. Answer A is wrong because Latin does not assign future markers based on whether an action involves location, movement, or speech — that's an invented rule with no grammatical basis. Answer B is wrong because the claim that all verbs use -bo in the first-person singular future is false; dicam itself is first-person singular, proving the point. Answer C comes closest to being useful but is still wrong: it's not the -eo ending on the present tense that matters, but rather the verb's conjugation class overall. A verb could end in -eo for unrelated reasons. Your study tip: memorize that the 1st/2nd conjugation future uses -bo/-bi-/-bu-, while 3rd/4th uses -am/-es/-et. When you see an unfamiliar future verb, identify its conjugation first — everything else follows.

Question 16

Puella in horto sedet et cogitat: 'Mox discipuli ad ludum venient et magister eis multa docebit.'

In the passage above, 'venient' is the third-person plural future of 'venio,' a fourth-conjugation verb. Why does 'venient' NOT use the '-bi-/-bo-/-bu-' future marker that appears in first and second conjugation verbs?

  1. Third and fourth conjugation verbs form the future with '-e-/-a-' added to the present stem, replacing the '-bi-' marker used only in first and second conjugation verbs. (correct answer)
  2. Fourth conjugation verbs have no future tense; 'venient' is actually a present tense form that Latin speakers used to describe imminent actions.
  3. The '-bi-' marker is dropped in all conjugations when the subject is plural, so 'venient' simply removes '-bi-' and keeps the plural ending '-ent.'
  4. Fourth conjugation verbs use the '-bi-' marker only in the singular; in the plural they switch to '-e-/-a-' endings, making 'venient' an irregular exception.
Explanation: When you encounter future tense forms in Latin, the first thing to recognize is that the future tense is not formed the same way across all conjugations. This question tests whether you understand that Latin has two distinct systems for building the future tense. First and second conjugation verbs insert the marker -bi-/-bo-/-bu- between the stem and the personal ending (e.g., amabo, amabis, amabit). Third and fourth conjugation verbs, however, use a completely different system: they attach -e- or -a- to the present stem instead. For venio (4th conjugation, stem veni-), the future forms are veniam, venies, veniet, veniemus, venietis, venient. The -e- marker (shifting to -a- in the first person singular) replaces the -bi- system entirely. That makes A correct — it accurately describes this two-system framework. B is wrong because Latin absolutely has a future tense for fourth conjugation verbs; venient is a genuine future form, not a repurposed present. Inventing a tense category that doesn't exist is a classic distractor. C is wrong because the -bi- marker is never dropped based on number. Plurality has nothing to do with which future-forming system a verb uses — the conjugation class determines that. D is wrong because there is no singular/plural split within fourth conjugation future endings. The -e-/-a- system applies across all persons and numbers uniformly; there is no "irregular exception" here. As a study tip, memorize the future tense as two separate paradigms: -bo/-bis/-bit for 1st/2nd conjugation, and -am/-es/-et for 3rd/4th. Keeping them visually separate in your notes prevents the most common confusion on this topic.

Question 17

A student needs to say in Latin 'We will hear the words of the teacher' using the verb 'audio' (fourth conjugation). Which form of 'audio' should be used?

  1. audimus, the first-person plural present active indicative of 'audio'
  2. audiebamus, the first-person plural imperfect active indicative of 'audio'
  3. audivimus, the first-person plural perfect active indicative of 'audio'
  4. audiemus, the first-person plural future active indicative of 'audio' (correct answer)
Explanation: When translating a sentence into Latin, your first job is to identify the tense — and here, "will hear" is a clear signal that you need the future tense, not present, imperfect, or perfect. The verb audio belongs to the fourth conjugation. To form the future active indicative, fourth conjugation verbs use the stem audi- plus the future tense markers -am, -es, -et, -emus, -etis, -ent. For "we will hear," you need the first-person plural: audi- + -emus = audiemus. That makes D the correct answer. Here's why each wrong choice misses the mark. A) audimus is the present active indicative ("we hear" or "we are hearing") — it describes action happening now, not in the future. B) audiebamus is the imperfect active indicative ("we were hearing" or "we used to hear") — this tense describes ongoing or repeated action in the past, the opposite direction from where you need to go. C) audivimus is the perfect active indicative ("we have heard" or "we heard") — also past tense, but this one refers to a completed action, built on the perfect stem audiv- rather than the present stem. A helpful study tip: train yourself to spot English tense markers instantly. "Was/were doing" → imperfect; "have done/did" → perfect; "will do" → future. Once you identify the tense in the English sentence, you can eliminate three of the four choices immediately and focus on conjugating correctly for the right person and number.

Question 18

Which of the following sentences contains a Latin verb in the future tense that is correctly translated?

  1. 'Pueri in via ludunt' — 'The boys will play in the street'
  2. 'Femina cibum parabat' — 'The woman will prepare food'
  3. 'Miles hostes superabit' — 'The soldier will defeat the enemies' (correct answer)
  4. 'Cives ad templum venerunt' — 'The citizens will come to the temple'
Explanation: When identifying Latin verb tenses, you need to look carefully at the verb ending, since Latin encodes tense directly into the verb form — not through helper words like "will." The future tense in Latin first and second conjugation verbs is typically marked by the suffix -bi- (e.g., -bit for third person singular), while third and fourth conjugation verbs use -e-/-a- markers. Choice C, superabit, is your answer. The verb comes from supero (first conjugation), and the ending -abit signals third person singular future tense: "he/she/it will defeat." Paired with the subject miles (soldier) and object hostes (enemies), the translation "The soldier will defeat the enemies" is a perfect match. Choice A is a trap: ludunt ends in -unt, which marks present tense third person plural. "The boys play in the street" would be correct — not "will play." Choice B, parabat, carries the -bat ending, which is the hallmark of the imperfect tense (ongoing or repeated past action). The correct translation would be "The woman was preparing food," not a future. Choice D, venerunt, uses the -erunt ending, identifying it as perfect tense — a completed past action. "The citizens came to the temple" is right; "will come" is wrong. As a study tip, memorize the key tense markers as a short checklist: -nt = present, -bat/-bant = imperfect, -erunt = perfect, and -bit/-bunt = future. Scanning the verb ending first will save you from translation traps every time.

Question 19

A student translates 'servus aquam portabit' as 'the slave was carrying water.' What error did the student make?

  1. The student confused the future tense marker '-bi-' with the imperfect marker '-ba-,' translating a future action as a past ongoing action. (correct answer)
  2. The student correctly identified the tense but chose the wrong subject, since 'servus' refers to multiple slaves rather than one slave.
  3. The student confused the future tense marker '-bi-' with the perfect tense marker, translating a future action as a completed past action.
  4. The student correctly translated the tense but made an error with the object, since 'aquam' should be translated as 'by water' rather than 'water.'
Explanation: When translating Latin verbs, your first job is to identify the tense markers embedded in the verb form. Latin signals tense through specific infixes, and confusing them is one of the most common mistakes beginners make. In portabit, break the verb down: porta- (stem) + -bi- (future tense marker) + -t (third person singular ending). This gives you "he/she/it will carry" — a future tense action. The student's translation "was carrying," however, describes a past ongoing action, which in Latin is the imperfect tense. The imperfect is formed with the marker -ba-, as in portabat ("was carrying"). The student saw a -b- and conflated the two markers, producing a tense that belongs to an entirely different form. That makes A the correct answer — the student swapped the future marker -bi- for the imperfect marker -ba-. Choice B is wrong because servus is nominative singular, meaning "one slave" — the student got the subject right. Choice C describes confusing the future with the perfect tense (a completed past action, like "carried" or "has carried"), but the student's translation says "was carrying," which is imperfect, not perfect — so C misidentifies the actual error. Choice D is wrong because aquam is accusative singular, correctly translated as the direct object "water," not the ablative "by water." A handy memory trick: think BAck for -ba- (imperfect looks backward to ongoing past action) and BIg future for -bi- (something still to come). Keeping these two markers distinct will prevent this exact error.

Question 20

A student sees the Latin verb form 'portabimus' and must identify its tense. Which of the following correctly identifies the tense AND provides the accurate English translation?

  1. 'Portabimus' is present tense and means 'we are carrying' because '-mus' is the standard first-person plural ending.
  2. 'Portabimus' is imperfect tense and means 'we were carrying' because '-ba-' signals continuous past action in Latin verbs.
  3. 'Portabimus' is future tense and means 'we will carry' because '-bi-' is the future tense sign inserted before the personal ending '-mus.' (correct answer)
  4. 'Portabimus' is perfect tense and means 'we have carried' because '-imus' appears in first-person plural perfect active forms.
Explanation: When you encounter a Latin verb form, your first job is to dissect it into its component parts: stem, tense sign, and personal ending. This morphological analysis is exactly what this question tests. Take portabimus and break it apart: porta- (the present stem of portare, "to carry") + -bi- (the future tense sign) + -mus (first-person plural personal ending). That middle element, -bi-, is the critical marker. In first and second conjugation verbs, Latin signals the future tense by inserting -bi- (or -bo- in first-person singular, -bu- before -nt) between the stem and the ending. So portabimus = "we will carry," making C the correct answer. Here's where each distractor misleads you. A correctly identifies -mus as a first-person plural ending, but -mus alone appears across multiple tenses — you cannot determine tense from the personal ending alone. The -bi- sign overrides that assumption, placing this firmly in the future. B is a tempting trap because -ba- does signal the imperfect tense (e.g., portabam = "I was carrying"), and -bi- looks visually similar. Students who blur these two tense signs will fall for this distractor. D misreads -imus as a perfect active ending — while first-person plural perfect forms do end in -imus (e.g., portavimus), the perfect requires the perfect stem (portav-), not the present stem. Your study tip: memorize the imperfect sign (-ba-) and future sign (-bi-/-bo-) as a pair — they look alike but mean opposite things in time.