All questions
Question 1
A city’s transportation department notes that after installing protected bike lanes on three major corridors, bicycle commuting increased by 22% and reported cyclist injuries on those corridors fell by 14% over the next year. During the same period, overall car travel times on adjacent parallel streets did not measurably increase, according to GPS-based traffic data. Because the department aims to reduce injuries without worsening congestion, it argues that the city should expand protected bike lanes to additional corridors with similar traffic patterns.
Which of the following best states the conclusion of the argument?
- Bicycle commuting increased by 22% on the corridors where protected bike lanes were installed.
- The city should expand protected bike lanes to additional corridors with similar traffic patterns. (correct answer)
- The transportation department aims to reduce injuries without worsening congestion.
- Protected bike lanes can reduce injuries on some corridors without necessarily increasing nearby car travel times.
- Most commuters will switch from driving to cycling if the city builds enough protected bike lanes.
Explanation: This question tests your ability to identify an argument's conclusion. A conclusion is the main claim the author wants to establish, while premises provide supporting evidence or reasons for that claim. The passage presents data about protected bike lanes (increased cycling, reduced injuries, no traffic congestion) and then uses this evidence to argue for a specific action. The transportation department's goal and the positive results serve as premises building toward what should be done next. The Borrect answer (B) states that "The city should expand protected bike lanes to additional corridors with similar traffic patterns," which is the recommendation the argument aims to establish. Choice D merely restates one of the supporting observations about reduced injuries without increased congestion, making it a premise rather than the conclusion.
Question 2
A health columnist claims: "People who take daily vitamin supplements report fewer colds each winter than people who do not. Therefore, vitamins prevent colds, and employers should provide free supplements to reduce sick days." Which of the following best describes the reasoning employed in the argument?
- It infers that a policy will be effective because it resembles a policy that worked in another context.
- It treats a correlation between supplement use and fewer colds as sufficient evidence that supplements cause the reduction in colds. (correct answer)
- It concludes that supplements are ineffective because some supplement users still catch colds.
- It rejects all medical studies in favor of anecdotal evidence from a single individual.
- It establishes by controlled experiment that supplements reduce sick days in the workplace.
Explanation: This question tests your ability to evaluate argument logic by identifying how the argument moves from evidence to conclusion. Sound causal reasoning requires distinguishing between correlation and causation, particularly when dealing with self-reported data. The columnist observes a correlation—people who take vitamin supplements report fewer colds—and immediately concludes that vitamins prevent colds. This reasoning pattern treats the observed correlation as sufficient proof of causation without considering alternative explanations, such as the possibility that health-conscious people both take vitamins and engage in other healthy behaviors that reduce colds. Choice B accurately describes this flawed reasoning pattern by noting that the argument treats correlation as sufficient evidence for causation. Choice D incorrectly characterizes the argument as rejecting medical studies, when the argument actually relies on reported data (which could come from studies) rather than anecdotal evidence from a single person.
Question 3
Read the passage and answer the question.
A transportation agency evaluated a pilot program that replaced some curbside parking with protected bicycle lanes on Alder Avenue. The pilot covered a 1.6-mile segment between 3rd Street and 19th Street and was implemented in May 2021. According to the agency’s report, the project removed 112 on-street parking spaces and added 0.8 miles of protected bike lane (counting one direction only). The report also stated that average weekday bicycle counts at a mid-segment counter increased from 420 in June 2020 to 690 in June 2021. However, the agency noted that traffic signal timing was also adjusted in April 2021 to reduce vehicle speeds, and it did not claim that the bike lane alone caused the increase in cycling. The report did not include weekend bicycle counts.
The passage states that…
- The pilot program covered a 16-mile segment of Alder Avenue.
- Weekend bicycle counts were included to confirm the weekday trend.
- The report claimed the protected bike lane alone caused the increase in cycling.
- The project removed 112 on-street parking spaces. (correct answer)
- Traffic signal timing was adjusted in May 2021, after the pilot began.
Explanation: This question tests detail comprehension by asking what the passage states. Correct answers in such questions restate explicit information from the text without adding inferences or external knowledge. The relevant detail is in the third sentence, which describes the project's impact on parking. This sentence states that the project removed 112 on-street parking spaces. Choice D matches this text by restating the exact number of parking spaces removed. A representative distractor, like choice C, fails because it attributes a causal claim to the report that is not present; the passage explicitly notes that the agency did not claim the bike lane alone caused the cycling increase. This distractor adds an unstated assertion.
Question 4
Read the passage and answer the question.
Some conservation biologists now advocate “assisted migration,” the deliberate relocation of species to habitats expected to remain suitable under climate change. The proposal is frequently presented as a pragmatic alternative to watching populations decline in place. Still, the confidence with which assisted migration is sometimes promoted can obscure how contingent its success is on ecological particulars that are difficult to forecast. Transplanted species may become invasive, introduce pathogens, or disrupt mutualisms that are not apparent in pre-move surveys. Proponents often reply that inaction carries risks as well, which is true; yet this retort can function as a rhetorical shortcut, substituting urgency for careful comparison of alternatives such as habitat corridors or targeted management of local stressors. The most persuasive case for assisted migration, then, is not as a general remedy but as a tightly circumscribed tool deployed when the relevant uncertainties are explicitly acknowledged and monitored over time.
The passage conveys an attitude that is primarily…
- Unqualified approval, treating assisted migration as the only responsible response to climate change
- Analytically cautious, favoring limited use while stressing uncertainty and potential unintended effects (correct answer)
- Angry and scornful toward researchers who propose interventions in natural systems
- Evenhandedly neutral, refraining from any judgment about the proposal’s merits
- Dismissive, insisting that assisted migration is necessarily ecologically catastrophic
Explanation: This question tests the author's attitude toward assisted migration as a conservation strategy. The tone is conveyed through language that emphasizes caution and uncertainty while acknowledging limited appropriate use. The passage warns that "confidence...can obscure how contingent its success is" and lists potential risks like invasive species and pathogen introduction. Yet the author concludes that assisted migration can be "a tightly circumscribed tool" when "uncertainties are explicitly acknowledged," showing analytical caution rather than outright rejection. Answer B accurately reflects this analytically cautious stance that favors limited use while stressing uncertainty. Answer A (unqualified approval) contradicts the extensive discussion of risks, while E (dismissive) is too strong given the acceptance of circumscribed use.
Question 5
Passage:
Some music theorists claim that listeners perceive musical structure primarily through hierarchical tonal relationships: certain chords and notes feel stable, others create tension that seeks resolution. This account fits well with many Western classical traditions.
Ethnomusicologists, however, document musical systems in which tonal hierarchy is less central. In some traditions, rhythmic cycles and timbral changes provide the primary cues for segmentation and expectation. Listeners trained in these traditions can accurately anticipate transitions based on rhythmic patterning even when pitch materials remain relatively constant.
Cognitive psychologists studying enculturation find that exposure shapes perception. Participants unfamiliar with a musical tradition often struggle to predict its phrase boundaries, but their performance improves after training that highlights the relevant structural cues—whether tonal, rhythmic, or timbral.
Meanwhile, computational researchers building music-prediction algorithms report that models trained only on pitch sequences perform poorly on repertoires where rhythm carries more information. Adding rhythmic and timbral features improves prediction, but increases the amount of data needed for training.
Question: Which statement is best supported by synthesizing information throughout the passage?
- Tonal hierarchy is the universal basis of musical perception across all cultures.
- Because rhythm can be central in some traditions, pitch information is irrelevant to music prediction in all repertoires.
- Both human listeners and computational models may need to rely on different structural cues depending on the musical tradition, and learning those cues depends on exposure or training. (correct answer)
- Training cannot improve prediction of phrase boundaries because musical expectations are innate.
- Adding rhythmic and timbral features always reduces the amount of data required to train prediction algorithms.
Explanation: This question tests the ability to synthesize information across the passage by merging tonal theories with cross-cultural, cognitive, and computational evidence. Synthesis requires combining facts or claims from different sections, like Western hierarchies with alternative cues and learning effects. The first paragraph centers tonal hierarchy, but the second highlights rhythm in other traditions. The third shows exposure shaping perception, and the fourth notes models needing diverse features. Combining these supports choice C, emphasizing tradition-specific cues and learning. A distractor like A universalizes from the first without synthesizing cross-cultural differences in the second. B overstates rhythm from the second, ignoring pitch relevance in models.
Question 6
Passage:
Urban economists often claim that dense cities are more productive because proximity facilitates knowledge spillovers: workers learn from one another through formal collaboration and informal encounters. This view predicts that industries relying on tacit knowledge should benefit especially from clustering.
Yet some remote-work studies during recent years found that certain teams maintained output after shifting to distributed arrangements, particularly when tasks were modular and well documented. In these cases, collaboration relied heavily on written communication and standardized processes, reducing dependence on spontaneous in-person exchange.
A different strand of research examines innovation outcomes rather than short-run output. Patent analyses suggest that while routine production may be sustained remotely, the generation of novel ideas can decline when workers lack opportunities for unplanned interaction across departments. Firms attempting to offset this effect invested in periodic in-person retreats and redesigned digital platforms to encourage cross-team visibility.
Finally, sociologists note that remote work can widen inequality within cities: high-income workers may leave expensive centers while service workers remain tied to location-specific jobs. This can alter the urban tax base and reduce funding for public amenities that also support informal interaction.
Question: Which of the following is most strongly supported by information from the passage taken as a whole?
- Because remote teams can maintain output, knowledge spillovers play no role in urban productivity.
- Remote work improves innovation by forcing all collaboration into well-documented written channels.
- Evidence in the passage suggests that remote work may preserve routine productivity for some tasks while potentially reducing certain forms of innovation associated with unplanned cross-group interaction. (correct answer)
- Periodic retreats fully substitute for dense urban environments because they recreate all informal encounters found in cities.
- Changes to a city’s tax base necessarily increase funding for public amenities.
Explanation: This question tests the ability to synthesize information across the passage by merging urban productivity theories with remote work evidence and broader effects. Synthesis requires combining facts or claims from different sections, like spillovers with output maintenance and innovation declines. The first paragraph links density to spillovers, but the second notes sustained output in modular remote tasks. The third contrasts with reduced innovation from lost interactions, and the fourth adds inequality effects. Combining these supports choice C, suggesting preserved routine but potential innovation losses. A distractor like A contradicts the third paragraph, relying only on the second without synthesis. D overstates retreats from the third, ignoring urban informal encounters.
Question 7
For each blank select one entry from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.. The answer choices are grouped by blank: choices A–C are candidates for Blank (i); choices D–F are candidates for Blank (ii); and if there is a third blank, choices G–I are candidates for Blank (iii).
The curator’s essay is notably about the painting’s provenance, a caution that is prudent given the archive’s gaps; in contrast, the catalog entry is oddly , asserting a single origin without qualification.
- celebratory
- tentative
- trenchant
- diffuse
- circumspect
- peremptory (correct answer)
Explanation: This is a two-blank Text Completion testing coherence through contrasting approaches to uncertainty. The phrase 'in contrast' explicitly signals opposing attitudes toward the painting's origins. The curator's essay is 'circumspect' (A) - cautious and careful - about provenance, which is prudent given archival gaps. In contrast, the catalog entry is 'peremptory' (E) - dogmatic and allowing no doubt - asserting a single origin without qualification. The coherence lies in contrasting appropriate caution with inappropriate certainty given the same incomplete evidence. Choice D 'tentative' fails because it would show similar caution to the curator, eliminating the intended contrast.
Question 8
Passage:
In debates about whether microfinance reduces poverty, some evaluations focus on average income changes among borrowers. A multi-country meta-analysis reported that mean income effects were small and often statistically indistinguishable from zero, especially in studies with short follow-up periods. The authors cautioned that borrowers use loans for varied purposes, including smoothing consumption rather than expanding businesses.
A separate set of field studies examined volatility rather than averages. In several rural regions, households with access to microloans reported fewer months of severe food shortage and were less likely to sell productive assets after a bad harvest. Yet these same studies found no consistent increase in long-term business profits among the median borrower.
Finally, qualitative interviews suggested that participants valued microfinance partly for non-income reasons: greater ability to handle medical expenses and reduced reliance on informal lenders who charged unpredictable rates. Interviewers also noted that the most successful business expansions tended to occur among a minority of borrowers who already had some market access.
Question: The passage as a whole suggests which of the following?
- Microfinance reliably increases median business profits when follow-up periods exceed one year.
- Microfinance is ineffective because it does not raise average income in the short term.
- Any benefits of microfinance are limited to borrowers who use loans exclusively for business investment.
- Microfinance may provide meaningful welfare gains by reducing households’ vulnerability to shocks even when average income effects are small. (correct answer)
- Microfinance reduces poverty primarily by lowering national inflation rates through increased competition among lenders.
Explanation: This question tests synthesizing information across the passage about microfinance's varied impacts beyond simple income measures. Synthesis involves combining insights from different sections to reach a broader understanding. The first paragraph shows that average income effects are often small or statistically insignificant, the second paragraph reveals that microfinance helps reduce volatility and vulnerability to shocks despite no consistent profit increases, and the third paragraph indicates participants value non-income benefits like handling medical expenses. By integrating these findings, we can conclude that microfinance may provide meaningful welfare gains through reducing vulnerability even when average income effects are small, as stated in choice D. Choice B fails by considering only the first paragraph's findings about short-term income, while choice E introduces an unsupported mechanism about inflation that appears nowhere in the passage.
Question 9
Read the passage and answer the question.
A linguist analyzing changes in coastal dialects compiled a corpus of recorded interviews from the town of Greyhaven. The corpus consisted of 96 interviews: 48 recorded in 1975 and 48 recorded in 2015. Each interview lasted exactly 30 minutes, and all speakers were lifelong residents of Greyhaven. The linguist focused on the pronunciation of the vowel in words like “boat” and coded each instance as either a “raised” or “non-raised” variant. In the 1975 recordings, 31% of coded instances were raised; in the 2015 recordings, 54% were raised. The study explicitly noted that the 2015 speakers had a higher average level of formal education than the 1975 speakers, but it did not provide the education averages. The linguist also stated that the interviews were conducted by different fieldworkers in the two years.
According to the passage, which of the following is true?
- All interviews in the corpus were recorded in 2015.
- In the 2015 recordings, 54% of coded instances were classified as raised. (correct answer)
- The study reported exact average education levels for both speaker groups.
- Each interview lasted 45 minutes.
- The same fieldworker conducted the interviews in both 1975 and 2015.
Explanation: This question tests detail comprehension by asking which statement is true according to the passage. Correct answers in such questions restate explicit information from the text without adding inferences or external knowledge. The relevant detail is in the sixth sentence, which provides the percentages of raised vowel variants in the recordings. This sentence states that in the 2015 recordings, 54% of coded instances were raised. Choice B matches this text exactly by restating the year and the 54% figure for raised instances. A representative distractor, like choice D, fails because it introduces a specific interview length of 45 minutes, whereas the passage explicitly states each lasted exactly 30 minutes. This distractor alters a stated detail to create confusion.
Question 10
Select the answer choice that best completes the sentence.
The historian initially dismissed the diary as unreliable, but the discovery of matching shipping records later its account of the voyage.
- corroborated (correct answer)
- obscured
- contradicted
- trivialized
- complicated
Explanation: This question tests logical fit in Text Completion by showing how new evidence changes an initial assessment. The key logical relationship is the contrast between initially dismissing the diary as "unreliable" and the later discovery of "matching shipping records." The Aorrect answer "corroborated" (confirmed or supported with evidence) satisfies this logic because independent records that match the diary's account would validate its reliability. The word "corroborated" aligns with how external evidence transforms a questionable source into a verified one. Choice C "contradicted" fails due to polarity mismatch—matching records would support, not oppose, the diary's account of the voyage.
Question 11
Select the answer choice that best completes the sentence.
The author’s argument appears rigorous at first, but its key claim is by a single counterexample that directly contradicts the supposed rule.
- bolstered
- ornamented
- postponed
- undermined (correct answer)
- consistent
Explanation: This question tests vocabulary meaning in context by choosing a word that describes how a counterexample affects the author's key claim. The context clues, such as 'appears rigorous at first' and 'directly contradicts the supposed rule,' indicate that the argument is weakened or invalidated. The correct word 'undermined' fits because it shows the claim being damaged by evidence against it. This choice captures the shift from seeming strength to revealed weakness due to the counterexample. Here, 'undermined' means weakened or subverted in credibility. A distractor like 'bolstered' fails because it implies strengthening, which contradicts the counterexample's role in disproving the claim. Another option, 'consistent,' might suggest alignment but ignores the direct contradiction described.
Question 12
A restaurant group tested a smaller menu at one location and found that food waste fell by 18% while customer ratings for food quality rose slightly. The manager explains that a smaller menu allows the kitchen to focus on fewer ingredients, improving freshness and reducing spoilage. Since the streamlined menu did not reduce total revenue at the test location, the group should simplify menus at its other restaurants to reduce waste without sacrificing sales. Which statement is the author primarily trying to establish?
- Food waste fell by 18% at the location that tested the smaller menu.
- A smaller menu allows the kitchen to focus on fewer ingredients, improving freshness.
- The restaurant group should simplify menus at other locations to reduce waste without lowering revenue. (correct answer)
- Customers always prefer restaurants with the smallest possible menus.
- The group should stop serving any items that require perishable ingredients.
Explanation: This question tests the ability to identify an argument’s conclusion in a GRE Verbal Reasoning context. Conclusions are the main claims or recommendations that the argument aims to establish, while premises are the supporting evidence or reasons provided to justify that claim. The passage details waste reductions and quality improvements from a smaller menu, noting stable revenue. It explains ingredient focus benefits, leading to a simplification recommendation for other locations. Choice C best states the conclusion because it captures the argument’s primary assertion to simplify menus group-wide. However, choice A is merely a premise, providing waste data as support rather than the conclusion. Likewise, choice B serves as explanatory evidence but is not the overall recommendation.
Question 13
Select the answer choice that best completes the sentence.
The auditor found no evidence of fraud, but noted several practices—such as missing receipts—that could create confusion during future reviews.
- rigorous
- innovative
- orderly
- sloppy (correct answer)
- ceremonial
Explanation: This question tests vocabulary meaning in context, requiring a word that describes careless practices. The context indicates no fraud but practices like missing receipts that could cause future confusion. The correct answer is (D) 'sloppy,' which means careless, untidy, or lacking in care and organization. 'Sloppy' perfectly describes practices that, while not fraudulent, show carelessness in record-keeping that could create problems. In this context, 'sloppy' means carelessly disorganized or lacking proper attention to detail. Choice (A) 'rigorous' fails because it means extremely thorough and careful, which would prevent rather than create confusion in future reviews.
Question 14
An ecologist claims that reintroducing wolves to a national park will likely increase riparian (riverbank) vegetation over time. As evidence, the ecologist cites (1) a 10-year dataset from Park X showing that after wolves returned, elk counts in river valleys declined by 25% and the proportion of time elk spent browsing in open riverbank areas decreased; (2) photographs from Park X showing taller willow stands at three monitored river sites five years after wolf reintroduction; (3) a study from Park Y in which wolf presence did not change elk population size but did change elk movement patterns; and (4) an analysis indicating that in Park X, average spring rainfall increased over the same decade.
Which statement best evaluates how the author uses evidence?
- The evidence definitively demonstrates that wolves alone caused increased riparian vegetation, since rainfall changes are unrelated to plant growth near rivers.
- The evidence is irrelevant because it focuses on elk behavior and wolf presence rather than directly measuring vegetation change across the entire park.
- The evidence includes behavioral and population data consistent with reduced browsing pressure and some site-specific vegetation observations, but it also notes a concurrent rainfall increase that could contribute to vegetation growth. (correct answer)
- Because elk counts declined, the claim that vegetation will increase is already proven, and no further evidence about plants is needed.
- The evidence is insufficient because only experiments with fully controlled rainfall and predator density can be used to support ecological claims.
Explanation: This question tests your ability to evaluate ecological evidence supporting a prediction about ecosystem changes. When evaluating evidence for ecological claims, you must consider both supporting observations and potential confounding factors. The ecologist claims that reintroducing wolves will likely increase riparian vegetation, citing reduced elk counts and browsing time in river valleys, photographs showing taller willows at monitored sites, changed elk movement patterns in another park, and increased rainfall during the same period. The evidence provides behavioral and population data consistent with the proposed mechanism (reduced browsing pressure) and some direct vegetation observations supporting the claim. However, the concurrent rainfall increase represents a confounding variable that could also contribute to vegetation growth, making it difficult to attribute changes solely to wolf reintroduction. The Correct answer (C) acknowledges both the supportive evidence and the complicating factor of increased rainfall. Answer choice A incorrectly dismisses the relevance of rainfall to plant growth, while choice B wrongly characterizes the evidence as irrelevant when it includes direct vegetation measurements at specific sites.
Question 15
A regional electric utility claims that offering customers a rebate for installing smart thermostats will reduce peak electricity demand enough to avoid building a new substation. The utility bases this conclusion on a small pilot program in which participating households used 10% less electricity during peak hours than they had the previous summer. The utility argues that because peak demand is driven largely by residential air-conditioning use, expanding the rebate program will produce similar reductions at scale. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument?
- Some households in the pilot program reported that they liked being able to control their thermostat from a phone app.
- Commercial buildings account for a substantial portion of the region’s peak electricity demand, and their demand has been rising faster than residential demand. (correct answer)
- The rebate amount is larger than rebates offered by neighboring utilities for similar devices.
- The smart thermostats in the pilot program were manufactured by several different companies.
- The utility’s customer satisfaction ratings improved slightly after the pilot program began.
Explanation: This question asks you to weaken an argument about smart thermostats reducing peak electricity demand enough to avoid building a new substation. Weakening requires showing that the conclusion doesn't follow from the evidence about residential reductions. The utility assumes that because residential air-conditioning drives peak demand, a 10% household reduction will scale up to avoid needing new infrastructure. The Borrect answer (B) undermines this by revealing that commercial buildings account for a substantial portion of peak demand and their demand is rising faster than residential. This means that even if the residential program succeeds, it may not reduce overall peak demand enough to avoid the substation, since commercial demand isn't addressed. Choice A about customer preferences doesn't address whether the program reduces demand sufficiently, while choice C about rebate amounts compared to other utilities is irrelevant to effectiveness.
Question 16
Passage:
In organizational psychology, “psychological safety” refers to a shared belief that interpersonal risk-taking—such as admitting mistakes or proposing unconventional ideas—will not lead to punishment or humiliation. Studies often link psychological safety to team learning.
Yet researchers note that psychological safety is not identical to comfort or consensus. Some teams report high safety while also engaging in frequent task-related conflict, because members feel able to challenge one another’s ideas without personal hostility. In contrast, teams that avoid disagreement can appear harmonious but may suppress dissent.
A separate literature on performance management finds that when evaluation systems emphasize individual rankings, employees may withhold information that could help peers, especially if rewards are zero-sum. Some firms have attempted to counteract this by incorporating team-based metrics, though critics argue that such metrics can obscure individual contributions.
Finally, case studies of high-reliability organizations (such as aviation maintenance units) suggest that structured reporting systems—checklists, incident logs, and routine debriefs—can institutionalize speaking up, but only when leaders respond to reports by fixing processes rather than blaming individuals.
Question: Based on the passage, which conclusion can be drawn by combining information from multiple paragraphs?
- Teams with psychological safety necessarily experience low levels of conflict because members avoid challenging one another.
- Evaluation systems that emphasize individual rankings always improve team learning by rewarding the best performers.
- Practices that encourage speaking up can be undermined by incentives that pit individuals against one another, so fostering psychological safety may require aligning leadership responses and performance metrics with learning-oriented reporting. (correct answer)
- Team-based metrics eliminate the need for leaders to respond constructively to incident reports.
- Checklists and incident logs are effective only when teams already avoid task-related conflict.
Explanation: This question tests the ability to synthesize information across the passage by integrating psychological safety with conflict, incentives, and reporting systems. Synthesis requires combining facts or claims from different sections, like safety definitions with performance and leadership factors. The first paragraph links safety to learning, but the second distinguishes from low conflict. The third notes individual rankings hindering sharing, and the fourth emphasizes constructive responses. Combining these supports choice C, requiring alignment for safety. A distractor like A misinterprets the second paragraph's conflict allowance. B contradicts the third, failing synthesis with safety.
Question 17
A research institute compared two grant-application formats: a long narrative and a shorter structured form. Reviewers spent 20% less time evaluating applications using the structured form, yet their final funding decisions closely matched those made under the narrative format in prior years. Because faster review allows the institute to process more applications without hiring additional staff, it should switch to the structured form for next year’s grants. Which of the following best states the conclusion of the argument?
- Reviewers spent less time evaluating applications using the structured form.
- Funding decisions under the structured form closely matched prior years’ decisions.
- The institute should use the structured grant-application form next year to increase processing capacity without added staff. (correct answer)
- The narrative format is unfair because it favors applicants who write well.
- Switching formats will guarantee that the best proposals are always funded.
Explanation: This question tests the ability to identify an argument’s conclusion in a GRE Verbal Reasoning context. Conclusions are the main claims or recommendations that the argument aims to establish, while premises are the supporting evidence or reasons provided to justify that claim. The passage compares review times and decision consistency between formats, noting capacity gains from faster reviews. It builds to a switch recommendation for processing more applications without extra staff. Choice C best states the conclusion because it directly expresses the argument’s advice to use the structured form next year. Conversely, choice A is merely a premise, offering time data as evidence without serving as the conclusion. Similarly, choice B acts as consistency evidence but does not capture the main point.
Question 18
Passage:
In corporate governance, stakeholder capitalism is sometimes introduced as a corrective to shareholder primacy, promising that firms can simultaneously pursue profits and broader social goals. The aspiration is not incoherent, but its operational content is often left vague. Appeals to “all stakeholders” can function as a flexible mandate that justifies almost any managerial choice, including choices that would previously have required clearer accountability. Metrics meant to track social performance are proliferating, yet they are frequently incomparable across firms and susceptible to selective disclosure. Without enforceable standards, stakeholder rhetoric may do less to constrain corporate behavior than to provide a more polished vocabulary for it.
Question:
The author’s attitude toward stakeholder capitalism is best described as…
- Guardedly critical, suggesting the concept can become vague and weakly accountable (correct answer)
- Unambiguously approving, treating stakeholder capitalism as a settled solution
- Evenhanded and purely informational, with no evaluative cues
- Vindictive and personally antagonistic toward corporate managers
- Hyperbolically condemning, claiming stakeholder capitalism inevitably destroys all profits
Explanation: This question tests the author's attitude or tone toward stakeholder capitalism. Tone is conveyed through diction and emphasis in critical evaluation. The author uses phrases like "operational content is often left vague," "flexible mandate," and "may do less to constrain...than to provide a more polished vocabulary," suggesting the concept can become meaningless rhetoric. The passage doesn't reject the aspiration but criticizes weak implementation and accountability. The Aorrect answer A ("Guardedly critical, suggesting the concept can become vague and weakly accountable") captures this skeptical assessment. Answer B is incorrect because it suggests unambiguous approval, while the passage clearly identifies problems with vagueness and accountability.
Question 19
An archaeologist proposes that a coastal settlement relied heavily on marine resources. As evidence, the archaeologist notes: (1) 62% of animal bone fragments recovered from household middens are fish vertebrae and shellfish remains; (2) isotopic analysis of human teeth from the site indicates elevated nitrogen-15 levels consistent with diets high in marine protein; and (3) a nearby inland site from the same period contains more deer bones than fish bones.
Which of the following best characterizes the support for the author’s claim?
- The evidence establishes beyond doubt that every resident ate only fish and shellfish, since most animal remains are marine.
- The evidence is weak because comparing the site to an inland site does not directly describe the coastal settlement’s diet.
- The evidence is the conclusion, because identifying fish bones means the settlement relied on marine resources.
- The evidence includes material remains and biochemical indicators that directly bear on diet, with a regional comparison providing context, thereby supporting the claim. (correct answer)
- The evidence is inadequate because only written records can reliably indicate what ancient people ate.
Explanation: This question tests the skill of evaluating evidence in a passage by assessing how well it supports a given claim. Evidence must be assessed relative to the claim it supports, examining its relevance, strength, and any limitations in establishing causation or sufficiency. The passage includes three pieces of evidence: a high percentage of marine animal remains in middens, isotopic analysis indicating marine protein in diets, and a comparison to an inland site with more terrestrial remains. These material and biochemical indicators directly address dietary reliance, with the regional comparison adding contextual support. The Dorrect answer, choice D, accurately characterizes the evidence as providing direct and contextual support for the claim about heavy reliance on marine resources. In contrast, choice A exaggerates the evidence's strength by claiming it proves exclusive consumption of marine resources, which the data does not fully establish. Similarly, choice E fails by imposing an external standard of written records, which is not necessary for archaeological evidence to be valid.
Question 20
Read the passage and answer the question.
In public health, wastewater surveillance has been promoted as a low-cost way to track infectious disease trends, since viral fragments can be detected before clinical testing captures an outbreak. The approach has clear advantages: it can reveal community-level signals even when individuals avoid clinics or home-test results go unreported. Still, claims that wastewater data provide a straightforward “early warning system” often neglect practical complications. Sampling sites may not correspond neatly to neighborhoods, industrial discharge can distort readings, and interpreting concentration changes requires assumptions about flow rates and population size that are not always defensible. Wastewater surveillance is therefore best understood as a valuable complement to, not a replacement for, more direct epidemiological measures.
The author’s attitude toward wastewater surveillance can best be described as…
- Unreserved praise, treating wastewater data as definitive proof of disease prevalence
- Measured approval tempered by attention to interpretive and logistical limits (correct answer)
- Irritated denunciation of public health officials for using any indirect measures
- Noncommittal neutrality, avoiding any suggestion that the approach is useful
- Dismissal, asserting the method is scientifically incoherent
Explanation: This question tests the reader's ability to identify the author's attitude toward wastewater surveillance in public health. Tone is conveyed through diction and emphasis, balancing advantages with practical complications. The passage highlights 'clear advantages' like community signals but notes that claims neglect 'practical complications' such as sampling issues and assumptions. It further positions it as a 'valuable complement' rather than replacement for direct measures. Therefore, choice B reflects this measured approval tempered by interpretive and logistical limits. Choice A is an extreme distractor, treating data as definitive proof, which overlooks the author's caveats on complications. Choice E fails by dismissing the method as incoherent, contrary to the passage's view of its value.
Question 21
Passage:
In public health, “nudge” interventions—such as changing default options or rearranging cafeteria layouts—are sometimes promoted as a way to improve behavior without coercion. Advocates emphasize that nudges preserve freedom of choice while counteracting predictable cognitive biases. Because nudges are often inexpensive, they can appear to offer a rare policy tool that is both effective and politically palatable.
Yet critics argue that the apparent gentleness of nudges can obscure important ethical and practical questions. If citizens are steered without knowing it, transparency may be compromised; if nudges substitute for structural reforms, they may merely tinker at the margins while leaving underlying constraints intact. Furthermore, evidence for nudge effectiveness is mixed, with some effects shrinking outside controlled settings.
Proponents respond that these objections conflate poor implementation with the concept itself. They propose standards for disclosure, rigorous field evaluation, and a division of labor in which nudges complement rather than replace more comprehensive policies. On this account, the debate should not be whether to use nudges, but under what conditions their use is legitimate and empirically justified.
Question: Which of the following best describes the role of the third paragraph in the passage?
- It offers a rebuttal to the criticisms raised earlier and refines the debate by specifying conditions under which nudges may be acceptable. (correct answer)
- It provides the first definition of nudges and explains why they are cheaper than other interventions.
- It presents new empirical studies proving that nudges always outperform structural reforms.
- It shifts the topic from health policy to marketing in order to show that nudges originated in advertising.
- It summarizes the passage’s main points in a neutral way without endorsing any position.
Explanation: This question tests the reader's understanding of passage structure and organization in GRE Verbal Reasoning. Structure concerns how ideas are arranged to support the author’s purpose, such as presenting advocacy, criticism, and response. The third paragraph rebuts the criticisms by distinguishing poor implementation from the nudge concept and proposes standards for legitimate use. This refines the debate by shifting focus to conditions for acceptability. Choice A accurately describes this role of rebuttal and refinement. In contrast, choice B fails by suggesting it provides the first definition, which ignores its responsive function after earlier introduction. Similarly, choice C confuses the function with presenting new studies proving superiority, focusing on content rather than organizational rebuttal.
Question 22
Passage:
In linguistics, a long-standing question is whether children acquire grammar primarily by extracting patterns from input or by relying on innate constraints that narrow the hypothesis space. Pattern-learning accounts point to children’s sensitivity to distributional regularities and to the success of statistical models in approximating certain acquisition trajectories.
Nativist accounts reply that statistical learning, by itself, may be underdetermined: many grammars can generate the same surface strings, so a learner needs biases to choose among them. They also note that children converge on grammatical rules despite receiving limited explicit correction, suggesting that learning is guided by more than reinforcement.
More recent work has complicated the debate by showing that the two positions need not be framed as rivals over a single mechanism. Researchers increasingly ask which biases are necessary for statistical learning to be efficient and which aspects of input are most informative given those biases. The emphasis shifts from declaring a winner to specifying how constraints and data interact during development.
Question: The third paragraph primarily serves to
- resolve the debate decisively by proving that statistical models can learn grammar with no prior biases.
- summarize the first two paragraphs without changing the terms of the discussion.
- reframe the preceding opposition by suggesting a research program that integrates elements of both perspectives. (correct answer)
- provide a historical overview of how child language acquisition research has influenced educational policy.
- argue that explicit correction is the primary driver of grammar acquisition and should be increased in parenting.
Explanation: This question tests passage structure by asking about the function of the third paragraph in the debate about child language acquisition. Understanding structure requires recognizing how different sections relate to resolve or reframe preceding conflicts. The third paragraph moves beyond the pattern-learning versus nativist opposition by suggesting researchers now ask how constraints and data interact, effectively integrating elements from both perspectives into a new research program. The Correct answer (C) accurately describes this function—reframing the preceding opposition by suggesting a research program that integrates elements of both perspectives. Answer (A) incorrectly suggests the paragraph resolves the debate decisively in favor of one side, when it actually proposes a synthetic approach. This demonstrates how structural distractors often impose false resolution on passages that actually seek integration and reframing.
Question 23
Read the passage and answer the question.
Some commentators claim that the spread of digital reading inevitably diminishes comprehension because screens encourage skimming. The evidence, however, is more mixed than the claim suggests. Studies that compare print and screen often find small average differences, but those averages conceal substantial variation depending on task and design. When digital texts are presented with frequent notifications, hyperlinks, or infinite scrolling, readers are more likely to fragment attention and retain less. Yet when distractions are minimized and the interface supports navigation—through stable page numbers, clear headings, and easy annotation—screen reading can yield comprehension comparable to print. Moreover, the medium itself does not determine reading goals: people often choose screens for quick reference and print for sustained study, and then attribute the resulting differences to the medium rather than to their intentions. The more defensible conclusion is that comprehension depends less on “screen versus paper” than on how the reading environment shapes attention and how well the format supports the reader’s purpose.
The primary purpose of the passage is to:
- Show that print reading is always superior to digital reading because it prevents distraction
- Summarize the history of digital interfaces and their evolution from early e-readers to modern tablets
- Explain that claims about digital reading harming comprehension are overstated and that design and goals mediate outcomes (correct answer)
- Argue that readers should abandon screens entirely in favor of paper for all serious reading tasks
- Discuss digital reading in general without taking a position on whether comprehension differs by medium
Explanation: This question tests the primary purpose of the passage by requiring identification of the author's main goal. A correct primary purpose answer should encapsulate the passage's intent, such as qualifying a claim and providing a nuanced view, rather than listing facts or taking an absolute stance. The passage develops this by countering the claim that digital reading always harms comprehension, citing mixed evidence and factors like design and goals. It further elaborates with examples of when screens hinder or support reading, emphasizing that outcomes depend on environment and purpose. Choice C captures the passage as a whole by highlighting the overstated claims and the mediating roles of design and goals, aligning with the author's balanced conclusion. For instance, choice A is a distractor that fails because it is too absolute, claiming print is always superior, which the passage refutes by noting comparable outcomes in well-designed digital formats. Likewise, choice D overstates by recommending abandoning screens entirely, ignoring the passage's nuanced support for context-dependent use.
Question 24
Passage:
In discussions of urban heat, policymakers often treat tree planting as an unalloyed good: more canopy, the reasoning goes, must always lower temperatures. Yet this assumption overlooks how cooling is produced. Shade reduces incoming solar radiation, but evapotranspiration—the release of water vapor from leaves—can be equally important, and it depends on adequate soil moisture. In drought-prone cities, trees with high water demand may provide substantial shade while simultaneously intensifying competition for limited water, prompting restrictions that reduce irrigation for all vegetation.
A recent modeling study compared two greening strategies across neighborhoods with similar building density. The first emphasized fast-growing, high-canopy species; the second used smaller, drought-tolerant species paired with reflective pavement. Under typical summer conditions, both strategies reduced daytime surface temperatures. During simulated multiweek droughts, however, the high-canopy strategy lost much of its cooling benefit as stomata closed and evapotranspiration declined, whereas the mixed strategy retained more stable cooling.
These results do not imply that large-canopy trees are a mistake. Rather, they suggest that planting programs should be evaluated as water-and-heat interventions together, not as a single-variable canopy target.
The primary function of the final paragraph is to:
- concede that the study’s findings are irrelevant to real cities because the drought simulations are unrealistic
- summarize the two greening strategies compared in the modeling study
- draw a qualified conclusion from the evidence and reframe the policy implication in broader terms (correct answer)
- describe how evapotranspiration works in order to provide background for the argument
- argue generally that all urban environmental programs should be combined into a single comprehensive plan
Explanation: This question tests the function of a sentence or paragraph within the passage's argument. Function refers to what role the paragraph plays in developing the author's reasoning, not merely what content it contains. The final paragraph begins with "These results do not imply that large-canopy trees are a mistake," which signals a qualification of the preceding evidence, then pivots to "Rather, they suggest..." to draw a broader conclusion about evaluating planting programs holistically. This paragraph serves to prevent misinterpretation of the modeling study while reframing the policy implication from a narrow focus on canopy coverage to a comprehensive water-and-heat intervention approach. Answer C correctly captures this dual function of drawing a qualified conclusion and reframing the policy implication. Answer A incorrectly suggests the paragraph dismisses the study's relevance, when it actually affirms the findings while cautioning against oversimplification.
Question 25
Select the answer choice that best completes the sentence.
Because the scientist refused to draw conclusions from a single experiment, she remained until the results were replicated by independent labs.
- cautious (correct answer)
- reckless
- ecstatic
- talkative
- complacent
Explanation: This question tests vocabulary meaning in context, requiring identification of the scientist's attitude before replication. The context shows the scientist 'refused to draw conclusions from a single experiment' and waited 'until the results were replicated,' indicating a careful, reserved approach. The word 'cautious' (A) fits perfectly, as it means careful to avoid potential problems or dangers, showing prudent restraint. In scientific contexts, being cautious means withholding judgment until sufficient evidence accumulates. The distractor 'reckless' (B) fails because it means acting without careful consideration of consequences, which is the opposite of waiting for independent replication.