All questions
Question 1
A public health department concludes that a new advertising campaign caused a recent increase in flu vaccinations. The department notes that in the month after the campaign began, the number of vaccinations administered at local clinics rose by 15% compared with the previous month. The department therefore plans to run the same campaign every year to raise vaccination rates. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument?
- The campaign’s advertisements were placed primarily on social media platforms used heavily by younger adults.
- In the same month the campaign began, several large employers in the area began requiring proof of flu vaccination for on-site work. (correct answer)
- Some clinics reported that they temporarily ran out of a particular brand of flu vaccine.
- The department’s overall budget for health education is higher this year than it was five years ago.
- The campaign did not include advertisements in languages other than English.
Explanation: This question tests your ability to weaken an argument attributing increased flu vaccinations to an advertising campaign. To weaken this causal claim, you need to identify another factor that could explain the 15% increase. The health department assumes their campaign caused the increase and plans to repeat it annually based on this assumption. The Borrect answer (B) provides a powerful alternative explanation: several large employers began requiring proof of flu vaccination for on-site work in the same month. This mandate would naturally drive vaccination rates up regardless of any advertising campaign, seriously undermining the conclusion that the campaign deserves credit. Choice A about social media placement describes the campaign's method but doesn't weaken the causal claim, while choice C about temporary vaccine shortages might actually suggest the campaign was too successful rather than weakening it.
Question 2
Passage: Commentators often blame misinformation solely on individual gullibility, implying that better critical-thinking instruction would largely solve the problem. The passage argues that this view is incomplete because it treats information as if it were encountered in isolation. In practice, people receive claims through social networks that provide cues about trust and belonging, and platforms reward content that provokes quick reactions. Even a careful reader may share a dubious story if it signals loyalty to a group or if the cost of verifying it is high relative to the perceived stakes. The author does not deny the value of education; rather, the author contends that interventions must also address the environments in which information circulates—for example, by changing incentives for amplification and by making verification easier at the point of sharing. The passage’s broader point is that misinformation is a systemic phenomenon, not merely a cognitive failing.
Question: The passage is primarily concerned with which of the following?
- explaining why critical-thinking instruction is useless in combating misinformation
- describing the history of social networks and their role in political communication
- arguing that misinformation persists due to systemic incentives and social contexts, so solutions must go beyond individual education (correct answer)
- discussing misinformation on the internet
- showing that people share dubious stories primarily because they lack the ability to evaluate evidence
Explanation: This question tests primary purpose identification, requiring recognition of what the passage is primarily concerned with addressing. A correct answer must capture the author's central argument about misinformation rather than just identifying the topic. The passage develops its argument by first presenting the common view that misinformation results from individual gullibility, then systematically explaining why this view is incomplete by discussing social networks, platform incentives, and group loyalty dynamics. The author builds toward arguing that solutions must address systemic factors beyond individual education. Choice C correctly captures this primary concern by identifying the author's argument that misinformation persists due to systemic incentives and social contexts. Choice D is too vague and merely states the general topic, while choice E contradicts the passage by oversimplifying the causes of misinformation sharing to lack of critical thinking ability alone.
Question 3
For each blank select one entry from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.. The answer choices are grouped by blank: choices A–C are candidates for Blank (i); choices D–F are candidates for Blank (ii); and if there is a third blank, choices G–I are candidates for Blank (iii).
The professor’s lecture was (i) in structure—each claim followed from the previous one—yet the conclusion felt oddly (ii) , as if the argument’s final step had been smuggled in without adequate support.
- desultory
- inevitable
- opaque
- coherent (correct answer)
- gratuitous
- meticulous
Explanation: This is a multi-blank Text Completion examining the paradox of logical structure with illogical conclusion. The sentence uses 'yet' to contrast the lecture's organized progression with its problematic ending. The first blank needs 'coherent' (B)—well-structured with claims following logically. However, the conclusion felt 'gratuitous' (E)—unnecessary or unjustified, as if added without proper support. This pairing creates academic irony: perfect structure can still yield unsupported conclusions. 'Desultory' (A) means disconnected, which would contradict the description of claims following from each other, while 'inevitable' (D) would suggest the conclusion follows naturally, eliminating the contrast signaled by 'yet' and 'oddly.'
Question 4
Read the passage and answer the question.
In conservation policy, “rewilding” has become a capacious label for efforts to restore ecosystems by reintroducing species and reducing human management. Advocates often emphasize its aesthetic and moral appeal, contrasting self-willed landscapes with what they portray as compromised, “engineered” nature. But the dichotomy is less stable than the slogan suggests. Many rewilding projects rely on substantial, ongoing intervention—selective culling, fencing, and negotiated land-use agreements—to maintain desired outcomes and prevent conflict with agriculture. Moreover, the historical baselines invoked to justify particular species assemblages are frequently contestable, given centuries of climate fluctuation and human migration. Rewilding can be a useful framework for expanding ecological ambition, yet it gains credibility when it is treated as adaptive management rather than as a return to an imagined prehuman equilibrium.
The passage conveys an attitude that is primarily…
- Reverential, treating rewilding as a self-evidently superior alternative to all other conservation strategies
- Evenhandedly descriptive, making no evaluative claims about rewilding
- Moderately supportive but critical of oversimplified rhetoric and dubious baselines (correct answer)
- Bitterly resentful, implying rewilding advocates are motivated by contempt for rural communities
- Flatly dismissive, arguing that rewilding is scientifically meaningless
Explanation: This question assesses the reader's ability to discern the author's tone regarding rewilding in conservation policy. Tone is conveyed through diction and emphasis, using qualifiers to support the idea while critiquing simplifications. The passage describes rewilding's 'aesthetic and moral appeal' but notes that the 'dichotomy is less stable' and projects rely on 'ongoing intervention.' It further questions 'contestable' historical baselines and advocates treating it as 'adaptive management' rather than a return to equilibrium. Thus, choice C captures this moderately supportive yet critical stance on rhetoric and baselines. A distractor like choice A is too reverential, treating rewilding as superior without the passage's emphasis on interventions and contestability. Choice E fails by being flatly dismissive, contradicting the author's view of rewilding as a useful framework.
Question 5
A restaurant owner notes that on evenings when live music is scheduled, the restaurant's revenue is typically higher than on evenings without live music. The owner concludes that live music causes higher revenue and decides to schedule music every night. Which of the following criticisms best applies to the argument?
- It assumes that the restaurant's food quality is identical every night, which is unlikely.
- It confuses correlation with causation and does not consider that music nights may coincide with weekends, promotions, or seasonal demand. (correct answer)
- It is invalid because revenue cannot be measured accurately in restaurants.
- It proceeds by analogy between restaurants and concert venues.
- It shows that scheduling music every night will necessarily reduce revenue by increasing costs.
Explanation: This question tests evaluating argument logic by analyzing correlation-causation reasoning. Valid causal inferences require considering alternative explanations for observed patterns. The owner observes higher revenue on music nights and concludes music causes the increase, deciding to schedule it nightly. This reasoning ignores that music nights might coincide with weekends, special promotions, holidays, or periods of naturally higher demand—the music might correlate with but not cause higher revenue. Answer B correctly identifies this as confusing correlation with causation and failing to consider coinciding factors. Answer E incorrectly suggests the argument claims nightly music will reduce revenue, when it actually claims the opposite.
Question 6
For each blank select one entry from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.. The answer choices are grouped by blank: choices A–C are candidates for Blank (i); choices D–F are candidates for Blank (ii); and if there is a third blank, choices G–I are candidates for Blank (iii).
While the professor’s lectures are famous for their detail, the accompanying slides are surprisingly , offering only headings and forcing students to reconstruct the argument from notes.
- speculative
- expansive
- granular
- ornate
- laconic (correct answer)
- perfunctory
Explanation: This is a two-blank Text Completion testing coherence through contrast between related materials. The key word 'While' establishes an unexpected contrast between the lectures and their accompanying slides. The lectures are famous for 'granular' (B) detail - extremely fine-grained and thorough - while the slides are surprisingly 'laconic' (E) - brief and minimal, offering only headings. This pairing creates maximum contrast between verbose lectures and sparse visual aids, forcing students to actively reconstruct arguments. Choice D 'expansive' fails because it would eliminate the contrast signaled by 'surprisingly,' making both lectures and slides detailed.
Question 7
Passage:
Researchers analyzing scientific peer review have compared single-blind systems (reviewers know authors’ identities) with double-blind systems (identities concealed). A journal that switched to double-blind review reported a modest increase in submissions from early-career researchers, though acceptance rates for those submissions did not change dramatically in the first two years.
In a separate audit, editors examined reviewer reports across both systems and found that reviews in the double-blind period contained fewer comments referencing an author’s prior work or reputation. Yet the same audit noted that in highly specialized subfields, reviewers sometimes inferred authorship from citations, datasets, or distinctive methods.
A third study surveyed authors and found that perceived fairness increased after the switch, particularly among researchers at less well-known institutions. However, respondents also emphasized that long turnaround times discouraged submissions regardless of the blinding policy.
Question: Which of the following is most strongly supported by information from the passage taken as a whole?
- Double-blind review eliminates all forms of bias because reviewers can never infer authorship.
- Switching to double-blind review can increase perceptions of fairness and may encourage some early-career submissions, even if practical limits prevent perfect anonymity. (correct answer)
- Acceptance rates must rise for early-career researchers whenever a journal adopts double-blind review.
- Turnaround time is irrelevant to submission behavior once perceived fairness improves.
- Single-blind review produces higher-quality reports because reviewers can cite authors’ reputations.
Explanation: This question tests synthesizing information across the passage about the effects and limitations of double-blind peer review. Synthesis requires combining findings from different aspects of the review system change. The first paragraph shows double-blind review modestly increased early-career submissions without dramatically changing acceptance rates, the second paragraph reveals that while reviews contained fewer reputation-based comments, authorship could sometimes still be inferred in specialized fields, and the third paragraph indicates perceived fairness increased particularly among researchers at less-known institutions. By integrating these observations, we can conclude that switching to double-blind review can increase perceptions of fairness and may encourage some early-career submissions even if perfect anonymity isn't achievable, as stated in choice B. Choice A incorrectly claims all bias is eliminated when the passage shows authorship can sometimes be inferred, while choice C wrongly assumes acceptance rates must rise when the passage indicates they didn't change dramatically.
Question 8
Read the passage and answer the question.
A political scientist studied the effects of open primary elections on candidate ideology in several states. In states that adopted open primaries, the average ideological score of winning candidates moved slightly toward the center over the next three election cycles. However, the shift was concentrated in competitive districts; in districts where one party routinely won by large margins, the average ideology of winners changed little. The researcher also found that turnout among self-identified independents rose modestly after open primaries were introduced, while turnout among strong partisans remained roughly stable. The study cautioned that district competitiveness can shape which voters campaigns prioritize.
The passage suggests which of the following?
- Open primaries caused strong partisans to stop voting in primary elections.
- In competitive districts, candidates may have greater incentive to appeal to independents whose participation increased under open primaries. (correct answer)
- Open primaries always produce centrist winners regardless of local electoral conditions.
- After open primaries were adopted, independent turnout rose modestly while partisan turnout stayed roughly stable.
- District competitiveness has no relationship to campaign strategy because primaries determine nominees, not general-election outcomes.
Explanation: This question asks you to infer from the political science study on open primaries. Inferences must be supported by textual evidence rather than speculation. The passage indicates that ideological shifts toward the center were "concentrated in competitive districts" and that "district competitiveness can shape which voters campaigns prioritize." Combined with the finding that independent turnout rose under open primaries, this suggests candidates in competitive districts have more incentive to appeal to these newly participating independents. Option B correctly connects these pieces of evidence. Option C is too absolute ("always produce centrist winners"), while option E contradicts the passage's emphasis on competitiveness effects.
Question 9
A neuroscientist argues that sleep helps consolidate procedural memories. The neuroscientist cites: (1) participants trained on a finger-tapping sequence improved their speed by 18% after a night of sleep but by 3% after an equivalent period awake; (2) EEG recordings during sleep showed increased sleep spindles, and spindle density correlated with next-day improvement; and (3) participants reported that the task felt “easier” after sleeping.
Which of the following best describes the role of the evidence cited in the passage?
- It conclusively proves that sleep is the only factor that can improve procedural skill, because performance gains were larger after sleep.
- It provides behavioral performance comparisons and a physiological correlate consistent with consolidation during sleep, while the subjective reports are supportive but less direct. (correct answer)
- It is largely irrelevant because EEG correlations cannot relate to memory consolidation.
- It is the conclusion, because saying performance improved after sleep is the same as explaining why it improved.
- It is insufficient because only animal lesion studies can demonstrate procedural memory consolidation.
Explanation: This question tests the skill of evaluating evidence in a passage by assessing how well it supports a given claim. Evidence must be assessed relative to the claim it supports, examining its relevance, strength, and any limitations in establishing causation or sufficiency. The passage includes three pieces of evidence: greater speed improvement after sleep, EEG correlations with improvement, and reports of the task feeling easier. These behavioral and physiological data support consolidation during sleep. The Borrect answer, choice B, accurately characterizes the evidence as consistent, with reports being less direct. In contrast, choice A exaggerates by claiming sleep as the only factor, which the evidence does not exclusively prove. Likewise, choice E fails by demanding animal studies, an outside criterion not required for human data.
Question 10
Select the answer choice that best completes the sentence.
Although the lab’s equipment was outdated, the researchers produced findings by using careful controls and transparent reporting practices.
- credible (correct answer)
- imaginary
- temporary
- reckless
- credulous
Explanation: This question tests vocabulary meaning in context by requiring a word that describes findings produced despite outdated equipment. The context clues, such as 'careful controls' and 'transparent reporting practices,' indicate trustworthiness or believability. The correct word 'credible' fits because it conveys reliability achieved through rigorous methods. This choice highlights how methodology overcomes equipment limitations. Here, 'credible' means able to be believed or convincing. A distractor like 'imaginary' fails as it implies fabrication, contradicting the careful practices. Similarly, 'reckless' suggests carelessness, opposing the controls mentioned.
Question 11
A beverage company tested a new label design on its bottled tea in two regions and found that sales in those regions rose by 8% compared with the previous quarter. The company concludes that the new label design increases consumer purchases and decides to roll out the label nationwide. The company notes that the tea’s price and formula were unchanged and that the regions tested are representative of the national market. Which of the following casts the most doubt on the argument?
- In the test regions, the company also secured additional shelf space at several large retailers during the same quarter. (correct answer)
- Some consumers report that they prefer label designs that use fewer colors than the new design.
- The company’s bottled tea is sold in more flavors nationwide than in the two test regions.
- The new label design costs slightly more per bottle to print than the old label design.
- Sales of bottled water in the test regions fell slightly during the same quarter.
Explanation: This question tests weakening an argument about a new label design causing increased tea sales. To weaken this argument effectively, you must identify information that suggests another factor could explain the 8% sales increase. The company assumes the label design alone drove sales, controlling for price and formula. The Aorrect answer (A) reveals that the company also secured additional shelf space at large retailers in the test regions during the same period. More shelf space typically leads to increased visibility and sales, providing an alternative explanation for the sales boost that has nothing to do with the label design. This seriously undermines the conclusion about rolling out the label nationwide. Choice D about higher printing costs addresses profitability rather than causation, while choice E about bottled water sales is irrelevant to whether the tea label caused increased tea sales.
Question 12
For each blank select one entry from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.. The answer choices are grouped by blank: choices A–C are candidates for Blank (i); choices D–F are candidates for Blank (ii); and if there is a third blank, choices G–I are candidates for Blank (iii).
The historian’s narrative is so that it admits no uncertainty; accordingly, any newly discovered letter that complicates the timeline is treated not as evidence but as an .
- rambling
- equivocal
- irrelevance
- anomaly (correct answer)
- dogmatic
- corroboration
Explanation: This is a two-blank Text Completion testing cause-and-effect coherence across blanks. The key phrase 'accordingly' signals that the second blank must logically follow from the first blank's description of the historian's narrative style. The narrative is 'dogmatic' (B) - it admits no uncertainty and presents everything as absolute fact. Accordingly, any complicating evidence is treated as an 'anomaly' (F) rather than legitimate evidence, because it doesn't fit the rigid narrative. The words work together to show how dogmatic thinking leads to dismissing contradictory evidence. Choice D 'corroboration' fails because dogmatic historians would welcome supporting evidence, not treat it as problematic.
Question 13
For each blank select one entry from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.. The answer choices are grouped by blank: choices A–C are candidates for Blank (i); choices D–F are candidates for Blank (ii); and if there is a third blank, choices G–I are candidates for Blank (iii).
The policy memo presents itself as , but its selective citation of studies and its dismissal of counterexamples reveal an underlying intent to rather than to inform.
- ornamental
- parochial
- adjudicate
- commemorate
- evenhanded
- mislead (correct answer)
Explanation: This is a two-blank Text Completion testing coherence between appearance and reality. The structure 'presents itself as...but' signals a contrast between the memo's claimed nature and its actual intent. The memo presents itself as 'evenhanded' (A) - fair and impartial - but its selective citations reveal an intent to 'mislead' (E) rather than inform. The coherence lies in exposing how claims of objectivity mask deliberate deception through biased evidence selection. Choice D 'adjudicate' fails because judging between positions, even if done poorly, differs from the deliberate deception implied by 'selective citation.'
Question 14
A city parks department argues that it should plant more street trees in a neighborhood with frequent summer heat advisories. The department cites temperature measurements showing that blocks with mature tree canopy are, on average, 3°F cooler than nearby blocks with little canopy. It also notes that emergency-room visits for heat-related illness are concentrated in the least-shaded parts of the neighborhood. The department concludes that increasing tree canopy will reduce heat-related health risks there.
The argument treats which of the following as evidence?
- Increasing tree canopy will reduce heat-related health risks in the neighborhood.
- The neighborhood contains several bus routes and a mix of residential and commercial buildings.
- If the city plants trees, residents will spend more time outdoors and exercise more.
- Emergency-room visits for heat-related illness are concentrated in the least-shaded parts of the neighborhood. (correct answer)
- Planting street trees is the only effective strategy for addressing extreme heat.
Explanation: This question asks you to identify what the argument treats as evidence. Evidence consists of the specific facts or data presented to support a conclusion. The conclusion is that increasing tree canopy will reduce heat-related health risks in the neighborhood. The Dorrect answer (B) presents data about emergency-room visits being concentrated in the least-shaded areas, which the department explicitly cites as evidence. This health data serves as evidence because it establishes a correlation between lack of shade and heat-related illness, supporting the proposed intervention. Choice (A) restates the conclusion rather than providing evidence for it, which is why it's incorrect.
Question 15
Read the passage and answer the question.
In literary criticism, a long-standing debate concerns whether interpretation should prioritize authorial intent or the text’s effects on readers. Advocates of intent argue that ignoring the author’s aims invites arbitrary readings; advocates of reader response counter that texts acquire meanings in diverse contexts the author could not control. The debate often stalls because it treats “meaning” as a single thing. One can distinguish at least three questions: what the author likely meant, what the text’s language can reasonably support, and what responses the text tends to elicit in particular communities. These questions can conflict, but they need not be collapsed into one criterion. For instance, establishing likely intent may clarify historical context, while examining reader response may illuminate why a work remains influential. A pluralistic approach does not declare all interpretations equally valid; it instead evaluates claims by the standards appropriate to the question being asked.
The passage is primarily concerned with which of the following?
- Arguing that only authorial intent matters and that reader-response criticism is illegitimate
- Explaining that the intent-versus-reader debate can be clarified by distinguishing different senses of “meaning” and adopting a pluralistic framework (correct answer)
- Providing detailed interpretations of a particular novel to demonstrate the superiority of one critical method
- Offering a topic-only survey of literary criticism without advancing a claim about interpretation
- Claiming that all interpretations are equally valid because texts have no stable language
Explanation: This question tests the primary concern of the passage by asking for its main focus. A correct answer should reflect clarifying a debate through distinctions and pluralism. The passage develops this by outlining intent versus reader positions, then distinguishing senses of meaning. It proposes evaluating claims by appropriate standards, using examples like historical context. Choice B encapsulates the passage's nuanced framework for the debate. For instance, choice A is a distractor that takes an extreme side, prioritizing intent only, unlike the passage's pluralism. Choice E fails by claiming all interpretations equal, contradicting the passage's standards.
Question 16
In the city of Norhaven, the transit authority argues that it should implement congestion pricing downtown. Over the past two years, average bus speeds in the pricing zone have fallen by 18%, and traffic sensors show that private vehicles account for most of the peak-hour lane occupancy. After a six-week pilot that charged drivers a small fee to enter the zone during rush hour, bus speeds increased by 12% and on-time performance improved, even though the number of buses in service did not change. Therefore, adopting congestion pricing permanently will improve the reliability of public transit in Norhaven. Which of the following is offered as evidence in support of the argument's conclusion?
- Congestion pricing will improve the reliability of public transit in Norhaven.
- During the six-week pilot, bus speeds increased by 12% even though the number of buses in service did not change. (correct answer)
- Norhaven’s downtown includes a designated pricing zone monitored by traffic sensors.
- If congestion pricing is adopted permanently, most drivers will switch to carpooling rather than pay the fee.
- Cities that adopt congestion pricing always experience long-term reductions in air pollution.
Explanation: This question tests your ability to identify premises or evidence that support an argument's conclusion. Premises are the stated reasons or facts that an author uses to justify their conclusion. In this passage, the conclusion is that "adopting congestion pricing permanently will improve the reliability of public transit in Norhaven." The Borrect answer (B) presents specific data from the pilot program: "bus speeds increased by 12% even though the number of buses in service did not change." This empirical evidence directly supports the conclusion by showing that congestion pricing actually improved transit performance during the trial. Choice A is incorrect because it restates the conclusion itself rather than providing evidence for it—the argument aims to prove this claim, not use it as support.
Question 17
Read the passage and answer the question.
Public enthusiasm for “smart cities” often rests on the assumption that collecting more data will automatically lead to better urban management. Sensors can indeed reveal patterns in traffic, energy use, or waste collection that were previously invisible. But data do not interpret themselves. Without clear governance, the same streams of information can enable conflicting objectives: optimizing traffic flow might increase vehicle speeds in ways that reduce pedestrian safety, while predictive policing systems can concentrate enforcement in already over-surveilled neighborhoods. Furthermore, the maintenance of data infrastructure—calibration, cybersecurity, and long-term storage—can consume resources that cities underestimate when they focus on initial installation. The most responsible smart-city initiatives therefore begin not with devices but with questions: What problem is being solved? Who benefits and who bears costs? What oversight ensures that data-driven decisions remain accountable? In this view, “smartness” is less a technological property than a political and administrative capacity to use information wisely.
The author’s main objective is to:
- Explain that smart-city technology is always harmful and should be banned
- Describe the engineering details of urban sensors and how they transmit data
- Argue that data collection alone does not guarantee better city management and that governance and accountability are crucial (correct answer)
- Provide a topic-only overview of smart cities by listing areas where data can be collected
- Claim that traffic optimization is the single most important goal of any city
Explanation: This question tests the author's main objective by identifying the passage's primary aim. A correct objective answer should highlight that data collection needs governance for effective management. The passage develops this by noting assumptions about data leading to better outcomes, with examples of conflicts and maintenance issues. It advocates starting with questions about problems, benefits, and oversight. Choice C captures the overall objective by emphasizing governance and accountability beyond data. In contrast, choice A fails by being too absolute, arguing for banning technology, which the passage does not suggest. Choice D is too broad and neutral, listing areas without the critical claim.
Question 18
Passage: Some educators defend timed, high-stakes exams on the grounds that they provide an objective measure of mastery. The passage challenges this assumption by distinguishing between mastery of content and mastery of test conditions. Time pressure, it argues, can privilege speed, familiarity with exam conventions, and anxiety management—traits that may correlate only imperfectly with deep understanding. At the same time, the author acknowledges that open-ended projects and take-home assessments can introduce other distortions, such as unequal access to resources or inconsistent grading. The passage therefore proposes a mixed approach: use multiple low-stakes measures across time, align each assessment format with the skill it is intended to capture, and interpret scores as evidence with limitations rather than as final verdicts. The goal is not to eliminate exams but to reduce the chance that any single format dominates judgments about learning.
Question: The author’s main objective is to…
- argue that timed exams measure a combination of knowledge and test-taking conditions and should be balanced with other assessment methods (correct answer)
- prove that open-ended projects are always fairer than timed exams
- outline the psychological mechanisms by which anxiety impairs working memory during tests
- discuss educational assessment practices
- recommend that schools abolish all high-stakes testing immediately
Explanation: This question tests primary purpose, asking for the author's main objective in discussing educational assessment. A correct answer must identify the author's central argument rather than merely stating the topic. The passage develops its argument by first presenting the defense of timed exams as objective measures, then systematically challenging this by distinguishing between content mastery and test-taking skills. The author acknowledges problems with alternative assessments before proposing a balanced solution using multiple assessment formats. Choice A correctly identifies the author's objective: to argue that timed exams measure both knowledge and test conditions, and therefore should be balanced with other methods. Choice D merely identifies the general topic without capturing the specific argument, while choice B misrepresents the author's position by suggesting open-ended projects are always superior, which contradicts the passage's acknowledgment of their limitations.
Question 19
Passage:
In the study of international development, microcredit was once hailed as a near-universal tool for poverty alleviation. By providing small loans to entrepreneurs excluded from traditional banking, microcredit institutions promised to unlock latent productivity and to empower borrowers, particularly women. The success stories were vivid and easily communicated, helping the model spread rapidly.
As randomized evaluations accumulated, the picture became more nuanced. Many studies found modest average effects on income, alongside substantial variation across contexts; some borrowers benefited, while others took on debt without meaningful gains. Critics concluded that microcredit had been oversold and argued that the emphasis on entrepreneurship ignored structural barriers such as inadequate infrastructure or weak labor markets.
In response, some practitioners have repositioned microcredit as one component within a broader portfolio of financial services. Savings products, insurance, and flexible repayment structures are presented as ways to reduce risk rather than to guarantee dramatic income growth. This reframing does not deny that credit can help, but it treats the earlier universalist narrative as an obstacle to designing interventions that match local constraints.
Question: The primary function of the second paragraph is to…
- offer a technical explanation of how randomized evaluations are conducted, independent of the microcredit debate
- undermine the initial enthusiasm by presenting evidence of mixed results and by introducing a critique of the original framing (correct answer)
- provide a personal anecdote about a single borrower to evoke sympathy for microcredit recipients
- argue that microcredit institutions intentionally manipulated data to appear more effective than they were
- conclude that microcredit should be replaced entirely by infrastructure spending in every country
Explanation: This question tests the reader's understanding of passage structure and organization in GRE Verbal Reasoning. Structure concerns how ideas are arranged to support the author’s purpose, such as building from enthusiasm to nuance. The second paragraph undermines the initial hype by citing mixed results from evaluations and critiquing the entrepreneurship focus. This introduces realism and sets up the repositioning in the third paragraph. Choice B accurately identifies this function of complicating the narrative. In contrast, choice A fails by suggesting a technical explanation of methods, which confuses content with the organizational role of critique. Similarly, choice C misrepresents as a personal anecdote, ignoring the evidential undermining purpose.
Question 20
An energy analyst compared household electricity use before and after a utility introduced time-of-use pricing (higher rates during peak evening hours, lower rates overnight). In the first two months after the change, total monthly consumption per household remained nearly unchanged, but the share of electricity used between 6 p.m. and 9 p.m. fell. The utility simultaneously launched an information campaign explaining how to shift appliance use to off-peak hours; participation in the campaign was voluntary. The analyst observed that households with smart thermostats showed the largest reduction in peak-hour share. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
- Time-of-use pricing reduced overall electricity consumption for most households.
- Households shifted some electricity use away from peak hours without substantially reducing total use. (correct answer)
- The information campaign caused all households to reduce their peak-hour usage.
- Smart thermostats are the only effective tool for reducing energy bills.
- Peak-hour rates were lower than overnight rates after the change.
Explanation: This question tests inference from usage patterns. Valid inferences must be supported by evidence without being explicitly stated. The passage indicates total consumption stayed nearly unchanged while peak-hour share fell, which logically means households shifted usage to off-peak times rather than reducing overall use. This inference is supported by the smart thermostat observation, suggesting automated shifting of heating/cooling loads. The Borrect answer captures this shift pattern accurately. Option A incorrectly claims reduction in total use, which contradicts the stated "nearly unchanged" total consumption.
Question 21
Read the passage and answer the question.
A public health department assessed the impact of a new appointment system at four vaccination clinics. Before the change, all four clinics operated on a walk-in basis. Beginning March 1, 2022, two clinics shifted to scheduled appointments in 15-minute slots, while the other two remained walk-in. The department compared average waiting time (from arrival to vaccination) during April 2022. The two appointment clinics reported mean waits of 22 minutes and 26 minutes, respectively. The two walk-in clinics reported mean waits of 41 minutes and 44 minutes. The report also stated that staffing levels were unchanged from February to April at three clinics; the fourth clinic added one nurse in mid-March, but it was one of the walk-in clinics. The department did not report the number of patients served at each clinic.
Which of the following is mentioned in the passage?
- The department reported patient counts for each clinic in April 2022.
- The appointment clinics used 10-minute scheduling slots.
- One of the walk-in clinics added a nurse in mid-March. (correct answer)
- All four clinics reduced waiting times to under 30 minutes in April 2022.
- The appointment system began on April 1, 2022.
Explanation: This question tests detail comprehension by asking which statement is mentioned in the passage. Correct answers in such questions restate explicit information from the text without adding inferences or external knowledge. The relevant detail appears in the seventh sentence, which discusses staffing changes at the clinics. This sentence states that staffing levels were unchanged at three clinics, but the fourth clinic added one nurse in mid-March, and it was one of the walk-in clinics. Choice C matches this text by identifying the addition of a nurse at one walk-in clinic in mid-March. A representative distractor, such as choice D, fails because it generalizes a reduction in waiting times to all clinics under 30 minutes, but the passage reports specific means of 22, 26, 41, and 44 minutes. This distractor adds an unstated threshold and implication.
Question 22
Select the answer choice that best completes the sentence. Since the software update fixed the security flaw that had enabled unauthorized access, the risk of data leakage was in subsequent audits.
- amplified
- irrelevant
- mitigated (correct answer)
- inevitable
- conspicuous
Explanation: This question tests logical fit in Text Completion by examining cause and effect in cybersecurity. The logical relationship shows that fixing a security flaw (cause) should reduce the associated risk (effect) in subsequent audits. The correct answer 'mitigated' (C) means reduced or lessened, which logically follows from fixing the vulnerability that enabled unauthorized access. This word satisfies the cause-and-effect logic perfectly. 'Amplified' (A) has the wrong polarity—it would suggest the risk increased after fixing the flaw, which contradicts basic security logic and the positive framing of the fix.
Question 23
Read the passage and answer the question.
For decades, historians of science portrayed the early modern laboratory as a distinctly European invention, enabled by universities, wealthy patrons, and a culture that prized formal experimentation. On this view, the laboratory’s defining feature was its separation from artisanal workshops: knowledge was produced in controlled spaces designed to exclude the messiness of commerce and craft.
More recent scholarship complicates that story by emphasizing continuities between workshops and laboratories. Instrument makers, apothecaries, and metallurgists often developed techniques—distillation, precise weighing, standardized vessels—that later became central to academic experimentation. In addition, early “laboratories” were not always secluded; many were attached to households or businesses, and their practitioners moved fluidly between making goods and making knowledge.
Yet the revisionist account can also be overstated. Not every craft practice translated into reliable experimental method, and universities did introduce norms—public demonstration, written protocols, and disputation—that reshaped how results were evaluated. A synthesis is therefore more plausible: laboratories emerged from interactions between artisanal skill and institutional standards, rather than from either source alone.
The primary function of the third paragraph is to:
- Provide additional examples of workshop techniques in order to strengthen the revisionist account.
- Summarize the traditional view and explain why it remains the dominant interpretation among historians.
- Introduce a qualification to the revisionist perspective and propose a reconciliatory conclusion that integrates both accounts. (correct answer)
- Shift the discussion from the history of laboratories to a detailed description of metallurgical processes.
- Argue that universities played no role in shaping experimental norms.
Explanation: This question tests passage structure and organization by asking about the function of a specific paragraph within the larger argument. Structure questions require understanding how each part contributes to the author's overall purpose rather than just summarizing content. The third paragraph serves as a synthesis that acknowledges validity in both the traditional and revisionist accounts while proposing a middle ground. It qualifies the revisionist perspective by noting that 'not every craft practice translated into reliable experimental method' and recognizes universities' contributions to experimental norms. Choice C accurately identifies this reconciliatory function, showing how the paragraph integrates both accounts rather than fully endorsing either. Choice A mischaracterizes the paragraph as strengthening the revisionist view, when it actually tempers that view with qualifications.
Question 24
A neuroscience study compared two training regimens intended to improve older adults’ memory. Group S practiced memorizing word lists using spaced repetition; Group G played a commercially available “brain game” marketed for memory enhancement. After eight weeks, Group S improved on the specific word-list test used in training and also showed modest improvement on a different verbal recall test. Group G improved on the game itself but showed no statistically significant change on either memory test. The researchers note that transfer of training effects to untrained tasks is often considered stronger evidence of genuine cognitive improvement than gains limited to the practiced activity.
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
- Commercial brain games can never improve any cognitive ability in any population.
- Because Group G improved on the game, it must have improved equally on real-world memory tasks.
- Spaced repetition is more likely than the brain game to produce benefits that generalize beyond the trained activity. (correct answer)
- Group S practiced memorizing word lists using spaced repetition.
- The brain game harmed participants’ memory, causing declines on both memory tests.
Explanation: This question tests the ability to make a valid inference from the passage. A correct inference must be logically supported by the information provided without being directly stated. The passage shows Group S improved on trained and untrained memory tests via spaced repetition, while Group G improved only on the game itself, with no significant memory test changes. Transfer to untrained tasks is noted as stronger evidence of cognitive improvement. Therefore, spaced repetition is more likely than the brain game to produce benefits that generalize beyond the trained activity, as it demonstrated broader transfer effects. A tempting incorrect choice, such as option A, claims brain games can never improve any ability, but this is too categorical, as game-specific gains occurred. Another option like B assumes equal real-world improvement from game gains, which contradicts the lack of test changes.
Question 25
Read the passage and answer the question.
A marine biology field note describes a 2020 survey of eelgrass (Zostera marina) beds in a temperate estuary. Divers sampled 18 sites in June 2020 using 0.25m2 quadrats placed along 50-meter transects. At each site, the team recorded shoot density, blade length, and the presence of epiphytic algae. The passage specifies that salinity was measured with a handheld conductivity meter and that water temperature was recorded at one-meter depth using a digital probe. The survey notes that 6 of the 18 sites were located within a no-wake zone established in 2017, and that boat traffic was visually counted for 30 minutes at each site immediately after the biological measurements. In the laboratory, a subset of blades from each site was dried at 60°C for 48 hours to estimate dry biomass. The passage also states that the highest mean shoot density was observed at Site 12 and that Site 3 had the longest mean blade length.
According to the passage, which of the following is true?
- Boat traffic was visually counted for 60 minutes at each site before biological measurements began.
- Salinity was measured with a handheld conductivity meter. (correct answer)
- All 18 sites were located within a no-wake zone established in 2017.
- Quadrats of 1m2 were placed along 100-meter transects.
- Site 3 had the highest mean shoot density.
Explanation: This question requires identifying a detail that appears explicitly in the passage text. The correct answer must be information stated directly rather than implied or requiring interpretation. The passage explicitly states that "salinity was measured with a handheld conductivity meter," making option B the correct answer. This methodological detail about the equipment used for salinity measurement is presented as a factual statement. Option C is incorrect because the passage states that only 6 of the 18 sites were located within the no-wake zone, not all 18 sites as the option claims.