Finance Quiz: Leverage Effects On Risk And Return
20 questions · exam conditions
0:00
Leverage Effects On Risk And ReturnQuestion 1 of 20

Two firms, HighMargin Inc. and LowMargin Corp., have identical sales revenue and fixed operating costs. HighMargin Inc. has a significantly higher contribution margin per unit sold. Which of the following statements about their leverage and risk is most accurate?

LowMargin Corp. will have a higher degree of operating leverage because its operating income is lower and thus closer to its fixed costs.
HighMargin Inc. will have a higher degree of operating leverage because its profits are more sensitive to price changes.
Both firms will have the same degree of operating leverage because their fixed costs and sales are identical.
LowMargin Corp. has lower business risk because its lower margin provides a more predictable cost structure.
← Back to quizzes

Finance Quiz

Finance Quiz: Leverage Effects On Risk And Return

Practice Leverage Effects On Risk And Return in Finance with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Leverage Effects On Risk And Return, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Finance.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

Two firms, HighMargin Inc. and LowMargin Corp., have identical sales revenue and fixed operating costs. HighMargin Inc. has a significantly higher contribution margin per unit sold. Which of the following statements about their leverage and risk is most accurate?

  1. LowMargin Corp. will have a higher degree of operating leverage because its operating income is lower and thus closer to its fixed costs. (correct answer)
  2. HighMargin Inc. will have a higher degree of operating leverage because its profits are more sensitive to price changes.
  3. Both firms will have the same degree of operating leverage because their fixed costs and sales are identical.
  4. LowMargin Corp. has lower business risk because its lower margin provides a more predictable cost structure.
Explanation: Operating leverage measures how sensitive a company's operating income is to changes in sales volume. The key insight is that operating leverage depends on the relationship between contribution margin and fixed costs - specifically, how close operating income is to the breakeven point. When you have two firms with identical sales revenue and fixed costs, the firm with the lower contribution margin will actually have higher operating leverage. Here's why: LowMargin Corp. generates less contribution margin from its sales, meaning its operating income (contribution margin minus fixed costs) is lower than HighMargin Inc.'s. This puts LowMargin Corp. closer to its breakeven point, making its operating income more sensitive to percentage changes in sales volume. The degree of operating leverage formula is: DOL=Contribution MarginOperating Income\text{DOL} = \frac{\text{Contribution Margin}}{\text{Operating Income}}. With identical contribution margins in the numerator but lower operating income in the denominator, LowMargin Corp. has a higher DOL ratio. Answer A correctly identifies this relationship - LowMargin Corp. has higher operating leverage precisely because its lower operating income places it closer to its fixed cost threshold. Answer B incorrectly assumes higher margins create higher leverage, when the opposite is true. Answer C ignores that different contribution margins lead to different operating incomes, affecting leverage differently. Answer D confuses leverage with risk predictability - lower margins actually increase business risk due to higher operating leverage. Study tip: Remember that operating leverage is highest when you're closest to breakeven. Lower margins mean you're operating closer to that danger zone, creating more sensitivity to sales changes.

Question 2

A company, LeverCo, is financed with 50% debt and 50% equity. An investor wishes to invest in the company but prefers the risk-return profile of an unlevered firm. According to Modigliani-Miller's theory of homemade leverage (with no taxes), how could the investor adjust their personal portfolio to effectively create an unlevered position in LeverCo?

  1. Sell shares of LeverCo and use the proceeds to buy the company's publicly traded bonds.
  2. Buy shares of LeverCo and simultaneously borrow money personally in a 1:1 ratio to their stock purchase.
  3. For every $2 invested, buy $1 of LeverCo stock and use the other $1 to lend money at the same interest rate as LeverCo's debt. (correct answer)
  4. Sell half of their LeverCo shares and invest the proceeds in a diversified portfolio of other unlevered firms.
Explanation: To undo corporate leverage, an investor can engage in homemade 'unleverage'. Since LeverCo is 50% equity and 50% debt (a 1:1 D/E ratio for simplicity, or 1 part debt to 1 part equity), an investor can replicate the firm's underlying assets by buying its equity and its debt in the same proportion. By holding both the levered equity and lending money (which is equivalent to holding the firm's debt), the investor's combined position has a risk-return profile identical to holding the unlevered assets of the firm.

Question 3

A firm is evaluating two capital structures: Plan A (all-equity) and Plan B (50% debt). The EBIT-EPS indifference point for these plans is calculated to be $2.5 million. If the firm's management is highly confident that future EBIT will consistently be around $4 million, what is the most logical conclusion?

  1. The all-equity plan is superior because it avoids the financial risk associated with debt in a high-profit scenario.
  2. The levered plan (Plan B) is superior because it will result in a lower degree of total leverage at the higher EBIT level.
  3. Both plans are equally attractive at the expected EBIT level, and the choice depends only on management's risk tolerance.
  4. The levered plan (Plan B) is superior from an EPS perspective because the expected EBIT is above the indifference point. (correct answer)
Explanation: When you encounter EBIT-EPS indifference point questions, you're analyzing capital structure decisions based on which financing plan produces higher earnings per share at different operating income levels. The indifference point is where both plans yield identical EPS—above this point, the levered plan is superior; below it, the all-equity plan wins. Since the expected EBIT of $4 million exceeds the indifference point of $2.5 million, Plan B (50% debt) will generate higher EPS than Plan A (all-equity). This happens because the tax benefits of debt interest and the leverage effect on earnings outweigh the interest costs when operating income is sufficiently high. Choice A incorrectly suggests avoiding financial risk is always preferable in high-profit scenarios. While debt does increase financial risk, the question focuses on EPS maximization, and the numbers clearly favor leverage at this EBIT level. Choice B misunderstands leverage mechanics. The degree of total leverage actually increases with debt financing, not decreases. This choice confuses the relationship between leverage and profitability. Choice C fails to recognize that the plans are only equally attractive at exactly $2.5 million EBIT. Since expected EBIT is $4 million, Plan B definitively produces higher EPS, making the choice clear from a pure earnings perspective. Choice D correctly identifies that operating above the indifference point makes the levered plan superior for EPS. Remember this pattern: when expected EBIT exceeds the indifference point, leverage enhances EPS. Always compare the expected operating income to the breakeven level to determine which capital structure maximizes shareholder returns.

Question 4

A company has an annual interest expense of $2 million. Its current EBIT is $10 million. If market conditions worsen and its EBIT falls to $3 million, how would the company's degree of financial leverage (DFL) be affected, assuming no other changes?

  1. The DFL would decrease because the company is generating less profit to cover its debt.
  2. The DFL would remain unchanged because the amount of debt and interest expense are constant.
  3. The DFL would increase because EBIT is now closer to the fixed interest payment hurdle. (correct answer)
  4. The DFL cannot be determined without knowing the number of shares outstanding.
Explanation: The formula for DFL is EBIT/(EBIT−Interest)EBIT / (EBIT - Interest). At an EBIT of $10M, DFL = 10M/(10M / (10M - $2M) = 1.25. At an EBIT of $3M, DFL = 3M/(3M / (3M - $2M) = 3.0. The DFL increases as EBIT approaches the interest expense amount. This indicates that when earnings are low, a small change in EBIT has a much larger percentage impact on net income, signifying higher financial risk.

Question 5

In a market with corporate taxes but no personal taxes or bankruptcy costs, a profitable all-equity company completes a large recapitalization by issuing debt to repurchase shares. According to Modigliani-Miller theory, what is the expected effect on the company's cost of equity and its equity beta?

  1. The cost of equity will decrease due to the tax benefits of debt, and the equity beta will also decrease.
  2. The cost of equity will remain unchanged due to the precise offset of risk and tax shield benefits, but the equity beta will increase.
  3. The cost of equity will increase to compensate shareholders for higher financial risk, and the equity beta will also increase. (correct answer)
  4. The cost of equity will increase, but the equity beta will decrease as the company's asset base shrinks from the share repurchase.
Explanation: According to M&M Proposition II with taxes, the cost of equity increases with leverage to compensate shareholders for additional financial risk. The formula is re=r0+(D/E)(1−Tc)(r0−rd)r_e = r_0 + (D/E)(1-T_c)(r_0 - r_d). As the debt-to-equity ratio (D/E) increases, the cost of equity (rer_e) increases. Similarly, the equity beta is levered according to the formula βL=βU[1+(1−Tc)(D/E)]\beta_L = \beta_U [1 + (1-T_c)(D/E)]. As D/E increases, the equity beta (βL\beta_L) also increases, reflecting the increased systematic risk of the equity.

Question 6

A company reports an EBIT of –$5 million and has an interest expense of $10 million. An analyst calculates the degree of financial leverage (DFL) using the standard formula EBIT/(EBIT−I)EBIT / (EBIT - I). Which statement provides the best interpretation of the result?

  1. The DFL is a positive number less than 1, correctly indicating that financial leverage is low.
  2. The DFL is negative, indicating that an increase in EBIT will disproportionately decrease the firm's loss per share.
  3. The DFL is undefined because leverage concepts are not applicable when EBIT is negative.
  4. The calculated DFL is positive, but the interpretation is economically meaningless as percentage changes of negative numbers are ambiguous. (correct answer)
Explanation: The calculation is (-5M/(−5M / (-5M - $10M) = -5 / -15 = +0.33). While the formula produces a positive number, the standard interpretation of DFL as a sensitivity multiplier breaks down when EBIT is negative or less than the interest expense. The firm is already losing money at the operating level, and financial leverage simply exacerbates the net loss. Applying a percentage change interpretation to a negative EBIT is not economically meaningful, so the calculated DFL is misleading.

Question 7

Firm Alpha and Firm Beta are in the same industry and have identical assets and operating earnings (EBIT) volatility. Firm Alpha is all-equity financed. Firm Beta has a debt-to-equity ratio of 1.0. Assuming both firms have positive EBIT consistently greater than Beta's interest expense, which statement is most accurate?

  1. Firm Beta will have a lower return on equity (ROE) than Firm Alpha because of the cash outflow for interest payments.
  2. Firm Alpha and Firm Beta will have the same earnings per share (EPS) volatility due to their identical EBIT volatility.
  3. Firm Beta's EPS will be more volatile than Firm Alpha's EPS. (correct answer)
  4. Firm Alpha will have a higher price-to-earnings (P/E) ratio because its stock is less risky.
Explanation: Financial leverage magnifies the effects of changes in EBIT on EPS. Because Firm Beta uses debt, its fixed interest costs cause its net income (and thus EPS) to change by a larger percentage than its EBIT for a given change in EBIT. Firm Alpha, with no debt, has EPS that moves in direct proportion to EBIT. Therefore, Firm Beta's EPS will be more volatile.

Question 8

An analyst is comparing two airlines during a severe economic recession. SkyHigh Airlines owns its entire fleet of aircraft (high fixed costs). FlySmart leases most of its aircraft on a per-flight basis (high variable costs). Both companies experience a 30% drop in revenue. Which of the following outcomes is most likely?

  1. FlySmart will experience a more significant percentage decline in operating income than SkyHigh.
  2. SkyHigh will have a higher degree of operating leverage, leading to a much larger percentage drop in its operating income. (correct answer)
  3. Both companies will experience the same percentage decline in operating income because they operate in the same industry.
  4. SkyHigh's financial leverage will increase automatically, causing its operating income to decline more sharply.
Explanation: SkyHigh's business model with high fixed costs (aircraft ownership) and lower variable costs results in a high degree of operating leverage (DOL). FlySmart's model with low fixed costs and high variable costs (per-flight leases) results in a low DOL. During a downturn with falling sales, the company with the higher DOL (SkyHigh) will experience a magnified negative effect, leading to a larger percentage decline in operating income (EBIT).

Question 9

Consider two firms. Firm S is a subscription-based software company with high upfront development costs and very low marginal costs per customer. Firm C is a management consulting firm whose primary costs are consultant salaries, which scale directly with client engagements. Which firm likely has a higher degree of operating leverage (DOL), and what is the primary implication?

  1. Firm S has a higher DOL, which means its operating income is more sensitive to changes in its revenue. (correct answer)
  2. Firm C has a higher DOL, which means its profits are more stable during economic downturns.
  3. Both firms have a similar DOL because they are both in knowledge-based, human-capital-intensive industries.
  4. Firm S has a higher DOL, which implies that it must also have a higher degree of financial leverage.
Explanation: When analyzing operating leverage, focus on the relationship between fixed versus variable costs in a company's cost structure. Operating leverage measures how sensitive a firm's operating income is to changes in sales volume. Firm S (subscription software) has high upfront development costs that remain fixed regardless of customer volume, but extremely low marginal costs to serve additional customers. This creates high operating leverage - once the software is built, adding more subscribers dramatically increases profits without proportional cost increases. Firm C (consulting) has costs that scale directly with revenue since consultant salaries and time vary with each new engagement, creating low operating leverage. Answer A is correct because Firm S has higher operating leverage, making its operating income highly sensitive to revenue changes. A 10% increase in subscribers could translate to a much larger percentage increase in operating income due to the fixed cost structure. Answer B incorrectly assigns higher operating leverage to Firm C and misunderstands the stability implication - high operating leverage actually creates more volatility, not stability, during economic fluctuations. Answer C wrongly assumes both firms have similar leverage simply because they're knowledge-based. The key distinction isn't the industry type but the cost structure - fixed versus variable costs. Answer D confuses operating leverage with financial leverage. Operating leverage relates to the cost structure of operations, while financial leverage involves debt financing. These are separate concepts with no necessary correlation. Remember: High operating leverage comes from high fixed costs and low variable costs. Look for businesses with significant upfront investments but minimal incremental costs per unit.

Question 10

A company's current return on assets (ROA) is 12%. It can borrow funds at an after-tax cost of 5%. If the company increases its financial leverage, what is the expected impact on its return on equity (ROE)?

  1. ROE will decrease because net income is reduced by interest expense, lowering the return to shareholders.
  2. ROE will increase because the return generated on assets is greater than the after-tax cost of the debt used to finance them. (correct answer)
  3. ROE will remain unchanged because the increase in financial risk will be perfectly offset by the lower cost of debt financing.
  4. The impact on ROE cannot be determined without knowing the company's marginal tax rate.
Explanation: The relationship is described by the equation: ROE=ROA+(D/E)×(ROA−After-tax cost of debt)ROE = ROA + (D/E) \times (ROA - \text{After-tax cost of debt}). In this case, the spread (ROA−After-tax cost of debt)(ROA - \text{After-tax cost of debt}) is positive (12% - 5% = 7%). When this spread is positive, financial leverage is favorable. Increasing the debt-to-equity ratio (D/E) will multiply this positive spread, thus increasing ROE.

Question 11

According to the static trade-off theory of capital structure, the value of a levered firm initially rises with debt but eventually declines after reaching an optimal point. What is the primary reason for this decline in value at high levels of leverage?

  1. The interest tax shield is exhausted once interest expense exceeds operating income.
  2. The rising costs of financial distress begin to outweigh the tax benefits of additional debt. (correct answer)
  3. The cost of debt rises above the cost of equity, making further borrowing uneconomical.
  4. The firm's degree of operating leverage increases as a consequence of higher financial leverage.
Explanation: The static trade-off theory posits that a firm's value is maximized when the marginal benefit of the interest tax shield from an additional dollar of debt is equal to the marginal cost of financial distress. As leverage increases, the probability of bankruptcy rises, leading to both direct costs (e.g., legal fees) and indirect costs (e.g., loss of customers, supplier issues, agency costs). At high levels of debt, these costs of financial distress increase rapidly and eventually overwhelm the value added by the tax shield, causing the firm's overall value and WACC to worsen.

Question 12

Company P and Company Q have identical degrees of total leverage (DTL). However, Company P operates in a highly cyclical industry with volatile sales, while Company Q operates in a stable, non-cyclical industry with predictable sales. What can an analyst most reliably conclude about the expected volatility of the two companies' earnings per share (EPS)?

  1. Company P and Company Q will have roughly the same EPS volatility because their DTL is identical.
  2. Company P will have a higher EPS volatility as a result of its higher underlying sales volatility. (correct answer)
  3. Company Q will have a higher EPS volatility because its operational stability implies a greater reliance on financial leverage.
  4. The relative EPS volatility cannot be determined without knowing each company's specific DOL and DFL breakdown.
Explanation: Degree of Total Leverage (DTL) is the multiplier that links the percentage change in sales to the percentage change in EPS (i.e., %\Delta EPS = DTL \times %\Delta Sales). Since both firms have the same multiplier (DTL), the volatility of their EPS will be a direct function of the volatility of their sales. Because Company P has more volatile sales, applying the same leverage multiplier will result in more volatile EPS compared to Company Q.

Question 13

A profitable company decides to use its substantial free cash flow to systematically pay down its outstanding debt over several years, reducing its debt-to-equity ratio from 1.0 to 0.2. Assume the company's return on assets consistently exceeds its after-tax cost of debt. What is the most likely effect of this deleveraging strategy?

  1. Financial risk will decrease, and the expected return on equity (ROE) will increase.
  2. Business risk will decrease, and the expected return on equity (ROE) will decrease.
  3. Financial risk will decrease, and the expected return on equity (ROE) will decrease. (correct answer)
  4. Both financial risk and business risk will decrease, leaving the expected ROE unchanged.
Explanation: Paying down debt reduces fixed interest payments, which directly lowers the firm's financial risk and its degree of financial leverage. However, leverage magnifies returns. Since the company's return on assets (ROA) is greater than its cost of debt, leverage has a positive effect on ROE. By deleveraging, the company reduces this magnification effect. Consequently, while the risk to shareholders decreases, their expected ROE will also decrease, reflecting the standard risk-return tradeoff.

Question 14

A manufacturing firm with a high degree of operating leverage (DOL) is considering a debt-for-equity swap that will increase its debt-to-equity ratio. Assuming the transaction proceeds, what is the most likely combined effect on its risk profile?

  1. The degree of financial leverage (DFL) will decrease, partially offsetting the firm's high operating risk.
  2. The degree of total leverage (DTL) will increase, making earnings per share more sensitive to changes in sales. (correct answer)
  3. The firm's business risk will increase, while its financial risk will remain unchanged.
  4. The firm's operating breakeven point will decrease, reducing the overall risk of the firm.
Explanation: A debt-for-equity swap increases fixed financial costs (interest expense), which by definition increases the degree of financial leverage (DFL). Since the degree of total leverage (DTL) is the product of DOL and DFL (DTL = DOL × DFL), and the firm's DOL is already high, the DTL will increase significantly. A higher DTL means that a given percentage change in sales will result in a larger percentage change in earnings per share (EPS).

Question 15

An analyst compares Firm X and Firm Y. Firm X has a cost structure with 70% fixed costs and a debt-to-equity ratio of 0.2. Firm Y has a cost structure with 20% fixed costs and a debt-to-equity ratio of 1.5. Which statement most accurately describes the risk profiles of these two firms?

  1. Firm X has high business risk and low financial risk. (correct answer)
  2. Firm Y has low business risk and low financial risk.
  3. Firm X necessarily has a higher degree of total leverage than Firm Y.
  4. Firm Y is more likely to have stable earnings per share (EPS) than Firm X.
Explanation: Business risk is associated with the firm's operations and is driven by the use of fixed operating costs. Firm X's high proportion of fixed costs gives it high operating leverage and therefore high business risk. Financial risk is associated with the use of fixed-cost financing (debt). Firm X's low debt-to-equity ratio indicates it has low financial risk. Conversely, Firm Y has low business risk and high financial risk.

Question 16

A transportation company renegotiates its labor contracts, shifting from fixed monthly salaries for its drivers to a compensation model based purely on miles driven. Assuming this change keeps total labor costs the same at the current level of activity, what is the primary effect on the company's leverage and risk?

  1. The change increases financial leverage by creating a long-term variable liability on the balance sheet.
  2. The change has no effect on total leverage because the total labor cost remains the same at the current operating level.
  3. The change decreases operating leverage, which will reduce the volatility of the company's operating income. (correct answer)
  4. The change increases operating leverage because future labor costs are now more uncertain and variable.
Explanation: Operating leverage is driven by fixed operating costs. By converting fixed salaries into variable per-mile costs, the company reduces its fixed operating cost base. This action directly lowers its degree of operating leverage (DOL). A lower DOL means that the company's operating income (EBIT) will be less sensitive to fluctuations in sales (total miles driven), thereby reducing the company's business risk.

Question 17

A startup is deciding between two business models. Model 1 involves building a large, automated factory with high fixed costs. Model 2 involves using a network of independent contractors, resulting mainly in variable costs. If the company is operating in a new market with highly uncertain future demand, how would the choice of Model 1 affect its risk-return profile compared to Model 2?

  1. Model 1 creates lower business risk because the factory is a tangible asset that secures future production.
  2. Model 1 provides a more stable return on equity because its production costs per unit are fixed.
  3. Model 1 creates higher financial leverage due to the long-term commitment to the factory asset.
  4. Model 1 creates higher operating leverage, which magnifies both potential profits in a strong market and potential losses in a weak market. (correct answer)
Explanation: When analyzing business models with different cost structures, you need to understand operating leverage—how fixed costs amplify the impact of sales changes on profits. This concept is crucial for evaluating risk-return tradeoffs in uncertain markets. Model 1's automated factory creates high operating leverage because most costs are fixed. When demand is strong, revenue increases flow almost entirely to profit since variable costs are minimal. However, when demand is weak, the company still faces those large fixed costs, magnifying losses. Model 2's contractor-based approach has low operating leverage—costs rise and fall with sales volume, creating more stable but less dramatic profit swings. In an uncertain market, Model 1's high operating leverage creates a risk-return profile where potential rewards and losses are both amplified, making answer D correct. Answer A incorrectly assumes tangible assets reduce business risk. While factories provide production capacity, they actually increase business risk through operating leverage, especially in uncertain markets. Answer B misunderstands how fixed costs affect returns—having fixed production costs doesn't stabilize return on equity when revenue fluctuates dramatically. Answer C confuses operating leverage with financial leverage. Operating leverage relates to fixed operating costs, while financial leverage involves debt financing. Though the factory might require debt, the question focuses on the cost structure's operational impact. Remember: High fixed costs create operating leverage, which amplifies both gains and losses. In uncertain markets, this means higher potential returns but also higher risk—a classic risk-return tradeoff that's fundamental to financial decision-making.

Question 18

A company reports an EBIT of –$5 million and has an interest expense of $10 million. An analyst calculates the degree of financial leverage (DFL) using the standard formula EBIT/(EBIT−I)EBIT / (EBIT - I). Which statement provides the best interpretation of the result?

  1. The DFL is a positive number less than 1, correctly indicating that financial leverage is low.
  2. The DFL is negative, indicating that an increase in EBIT will disproportionately decrease the firm's loss per share.
  3. The DFL is undefined because leverage concepts are not applicable when EBIT is negative.
  4. The calculated DFL is positive, but the interpretation is economically meaningless as percentage changes of negative numbers are ambiguous. (correct answer)
Explanation: The calculation is (-5M/(−5M / (-5M - $10M) = -5 / -15 = +0.33). While the formula produces a positive number, the standard interpretation of DFL as a sensitivity multiplier breaks down when EBIT is negative or less than the interest expense. The firm is already losing money at the operating level, and financial leverage simply exacerbates the net loss. Applying a percentage change interpretation to a negative EBIT is not economically meaningful, so the calculated DFL is misleading.

Question 19

In a market with corporate taxes but no personal taxes or bankruptcy costs, a profitable all-equity company completes a large recapitalization by issuing debt to repurchase shares. According to Modigliani-Miller theory, what is the expected effect on the company's cost of equity and its equity beta?

  1. The cost of equity will decrease due to the tax benefits of debt, and the equity beta will also decrease.
  2. The cost of equity will remain unchanged due to the precise offset of risk and tax shield benefits, but the equity beta will increase.
  3. The cost of equity will increase to compensate shareholders for higher financial risk, and the equity beta will also increase. (correct answer)
  4. The cost of equity will increase, but the equity beta will decrease as the company's asset base shrinks from the share repurchase.
Explanation: According to M&M Proposition II with taxes, the cost of equity increases with leverage to compensate shareholders for additional financial risk. The formula is re=r0+(D/E)(1−Tc)(r0−rd)r_e = r_0 + (D/E)(1-T_c)(r_0 - r_d). As the debt-to-equity ratio (D/E) increases, the cost of equity (rer_e) increases. Similarly, the equity beta is levered according to the formula βL=βU[1+(1−Tc)(D/E)]\beta_L = \beta_U [1 + (1-T_c)(D/E)]. As D/E increases, the equity beta (βL\beta_L) also increases, reflecting the increased systematic risk of the equity.

Question 20

Firm Alpha and Firm Beta are in the same industry and have identical assets and operating earnings (EBIT) volatility. Firm Alpha is all-equity financed. Firm Beta has a debt-to-equity ratio of 1.0. Assuming both firms have positive EBIT consistently greater than Beta's interest expense, which statement is most accurate?

  1. Firm Beta will have a lower return on equity (ROE) than Firm Alpha because of the cash outflow for interest payments.
  2. Firm Alpha and Firm Beta will have the same earnings per share (EPS) volatility due to their identical EBIT volatility.
  3. Firm Beta's EPS will be more volatile than Firm Alpha's EPS. (correct answer)
  4. Firm Alpha will have a higher price-to-earnings (P/E) ratio because its stock is less risky.
Explanation: Financial leverage magnifies the effects of changes in EBIT on EPS. Because Firm Beta uses debt, its fixed interest costs cause its net income (and thus EPS) to change by a larger percentage than its EBIT for a given change in EBIT. Firm Alpha, with no debt, has EPS that moves in direct proportion to EBIT. Therefore, Firm Beta's EPS will be more volatile.