CPA Tcp Quiz: Evaluate Corporate Distributions And Redemptions

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Evaluate Corporate Distributions And Redemptions, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for CPA Tcp.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

Question 1

1. Ordinary dividend income to the extent of E&P.
2. Capital loss if the redemption price is below the shareholder's basis.
3. Sale or exchange treatment - the shareholder recognizes capital gain or loss equal to the difference between the amount received and the adjusted basis of the redeemed shares. (correct answer)
4. Tax-free return of capital up to the shareholder's basis.

Explanation: Complete termination under Section 302(b)(3) qualifies as a sale or exchange - capital gain or loss treatment. Answer C is correct.

Question 2

1. Recognize no gain or loss since the property is distributed, not sold.
2. Recognize a $20,000 ordinary loss on the distribution.
3. Reduce its E&P by the adjusted basis of the distributed property.
4. Recognize $20,000 of gain as if the property had been sold at FMV - corporations recognize gain (but not loss) on distributions of appreciated property. (correct answer)

Explanation: Under Section 311(b), corporations recognize gain on appreciated property distributions. The gain is $60,000 - $40,000 = $20,000. Answer D is correct.

Question 3

1. No gain or loss - liquidating distributions are nonrecognition transactions.
2. Only losses on depreciated property - gains are deferred.
3. Gain or loss only on assets sold to third parties.
4. Gain or loss on all assets as if each asset were sold at FMV - the corporation treats the liquidating distribution as a deemed sale of all assets. (correct answer)

Explanation: Under Section 336, the corporation recognizes gain or loss on all property distributed in complete liquidation as if sold at FMV. Answer D is correct.

Question 4

1. The corporation recognizes both gain and loss on distributed property.
2. The corporation receives a deduction for the distributed property.
3. The corporation recognizes gain but not loss on distributed property - gain is recognized as if sold at FMV under Section 311(b), but losses are not recognized under Section 311(a). (correct answer)
4. No tax consequences at the corporate level.

Explanation: Section 311 provides asymmetrical treatment: gain on appreciated property is recognized but losses on depreciated property are not. Answer C is correct.

Question 5

1. The corporation recognizes gain as if it had sold the property at FMV - the gain increases E&P, and E&P is then reduced by the net FMV of the property. (correct answer)
2. The corporation recognizes gain only if the redemption qualifies as a sale.
3. No gain or loss is recognized since the transaction is a redemption.
4. The corporation recognizes a loss equal to the redemption amount minus the property's adjusted basis.

Explanation: Corporations recognize gain on property distributed in redemptions under Section 311(b). Answer A is correct.

Question 6

1. It determines the corporation's deductible dividend payments to shareholders.
2. It establishes the maximum dividends the corporation can declare.
3. It measures the corporation's capacity to pay dividends out of earnings - only distributions from E&P are characterized as dividends; distributions in excess reduce shareholder basis or generate capital gain. (correct answer)
4. It is required to be disclosed on the corporation's balance sheet under GAAP.

Explanation: E&P is the tax concept measuring a corporation's ability to pay dividends - it determines whether a distribution is a dividend, return of capital, or gain. Answer C is correct.

Question 7

1. The shareholder must recognize ordinary income equal to the return of capital.
2. The shareholder's basis in the stock is reduced (but not below zero) - when basis reaches zero, further distributions are capital gain. (correct answer)
3. The shareholder's holding period resets on the date of the distribution.
4. The distribution is excludable from income permanently.

Explanation: Return of capital distributions reduce stock basis - once basis reaches zero, excess is capital gain. Answer B is correct.

Question 8

1. Current E&P is allocated to distributions made during the year first, on a pro-rata basis if there are multiple distributions; accumulated E&P applies to any remaining distribution that exceeds current E&P. (correct answer)
2. Accumulated E&P is always used first, before current E&P.
3. The corporation may elect which E&P account to draw from first.
4. Current and accumulated E&P are combined and divided equally among all distributions made during the year.

Explanation: Current E&P is allocated pro-rata to distributions during the year; accumulated E&P covers any excess. Answer A is correct. Accumulated E&P is not used first (B). No election exists (C). Equal division (D) is not the rule.

Question 9

1. The corporation redeems less than 100% of a shareholder's stock.
2. The corporation distributes proceeds from the termination of a business or a genuine contraction of the corporation's business - limited to non-corporate shareholders. (correct answer)
3. The corporation's assets decrease by more than 50% during the year.
4. The corporation is in financial distress and must liquidate some assets.

Explanation: Partial liquidation requires a genuine contraction of the business and applies only to non-corporate shareholders. Answer B is correct.

Question 10

1. The redemption price exceeds the stock's fair market value.
2. The shareholder reinvests the proceeds in another corporation within 60 days.
3. The corporation has insufficient E&P to characterize the distribution as a dividend.
4. The redemption meets one of four tests: substantially disproportionate, complete termination, not essentially equivalent to a dividend, or partial liquidation of a non-corporate shareholder. (correct answer)

Explanation: Section 302 provides four tests for sale/exchange treatment. Answer D is correct.

Question 11

1. They determine the fair market value of the redeemed shares.
2. A shareholder may be treated as constructively owning stock held by family members, partnerships, corporations, or trusts - constructive ownership can prevent a redemption from qualifying for sale/exchange treatment. (correct answer)
3. They determine the tax rate applicable to the redemption proceeds.
4. They require that the redemption be reported on Form 1099-DIV.

Explanation: Attribution rules assign constructive ownership to the shareholder - a complete termination may still be treated as a dividend if the shareholder constructively owns significant stock after the redemption. Answer B is correct.

Question 12

1. 40,000 - distributions are first characterized as dividends to the extent of current E&P (30,000) plus accumulated E&P ($10,000). (correct answer)
2. $50,000 - the entire distribution is a dividend regardless of E&P.
3. $30,000 - only current E&P determines dividend treatment.
4. $10,000 - only accumulated E&P is available for dividends.

Explanation: Distributions are dividends to the extent of E&P - current ($30,000) plus accumulated ($10,000) = $40,000 dividend; remaining $10,000 is return of capital then capital gain. Answer A is correct.

Question 13

1. $20,000 ordinary income since all distributions are taxable.
2. $20,000 capital gain since the distribution exceeds the shareholder's basis.
3. $15,000 return of capital (reducing basis to zero), and $5,000 capital gain. (correct answer)
4. $15,000 ordinary income and $5,000 capital gain.

Explanation: Without E&P, the distribution reduces basis ($15,000) and any excess ($5,000) is capital gain. Answer C is correct.

Question 14

1. Ordinary income rates (up to 37%).
2. Preferential rates of 0%, 15%, or 20% depending on the taxpayer's taxable income - the same rates as long-term capital gains. (correct answer)
3. A flat 15% rate for all taxpayers.
4. The corporate tax rate of 21%.

Explanation: Qualified dividends are taxed at long-term capital gain rates (0%, 15%, or 20%). Answer B is correct.

Question 15

1. For appreciated property, E&P is first increased by the gain recognized under Section 311(b), then reduced by the net FMV of the distributed property (FMV minus liabilities assumed by the shareholder) under Section 312; for property distributed at or below basis, E&P is reduced by the adjusted basis (not FMV). (correct answer)
2. Reducing E&P by the adjusted basis of the distributed property.
3. Increasing E&P by the gain recognized on the distribution.
4. No E&P adjustment is needed for property distributions.

Explanation: Under Section 312, the E&P adjustment for a property distribution involves two steps when the property is appreciated: (1) E&P is increased by the gain recognized under Section 311(b) (the corporation recognizes gain as if it sold the property at FMV); then (2) E&P is reduced by the net FMV of the distributed property (FMV minus any liabilities the shareholder assumes). If the property is not appreciated (distributed at or below adjusted basis), E&P is reduced by the adjusted basis rather than FMV. Answer A is correct. Reducing E&P by adjusted basis alone (B) does not capture the net FMV rule for appreciated property. Increasing E&P by the gain recognized (C) is only one step of the two-step adjustment. No adjustment (D) is incorrect.

Question 16

1. Taxable to shareholders at the FMV of the stock received.
2. Taxable only if the shareholder has a choice to receive cash or stock.
3. Tax-free to shareholders when the dividend is pro-rata and does not change proportionate interests in the corporation. (correct answer)
4. Taxable at the preferential qualified dividend rate.

Explanation: A pro-rata stock dividend is generally tax-free since proportionate interests don't change. Answer C is correct.

Question 17

1. Ordinary income to the shareholder.
2. A capital gain automatically.
3. Tax-exempt income.
4. A return of capital reducing the shareholder's stock basis - if the distribution exceeds basis, the excess is capital gain. (correct answer)

Explanation: Distributions exceeding E&P first reduce basis (tax-free return of capital), and any amount exceeding basis is capital gain. Answer D is correct.

Question 18

1. 30,000 - accumulated E&P (50,000) reduced by the current year deficit ($20,000) = $30,000 net E&P. (correct answer)
2. $40,000 - distributions are dividends up to the amount distributed.
3. $50,000 - accumulated E&P determines dividend amount.
4. $0 - current year losses eliminate all dividend treatment.

Explanation: Net available E&P = $50,000 - $20,000 = $30,000. The $40,000 distribution is $30,000 dividend and $10,000 return of capital. Answer A is correct.

Question 19

1. Treated as a sale with capital gain/loss regardless of E&P.
2. Tax-free to the extent of the shareholder's basis.
3. Treated as a dividend to the extent of E&P, then return of capital reducing basis, then capital gain. (correct answer)
4. Subject to the accumulated earnings tax.

Explanation: A failed redemption is treated as a regular distribution - dividend to the extent of E&P, then return of capital, then capital gain. Answer C is correct.

Question 20

1. Ordinary income equal to the FMV of assets received.
2. Capital gain or loss - the amount received is treated as full payment for stock, with gain or loss measured against the stock's adjusted basis. (correct answer)
3. Tax-free income since liquidating distributions are a return of investment.
4. Dividend income to the extent of accumulated E&P.

Explanation: Section 331 treats liquidating distributions as full payment for stock - capital gain or loss. Answer B is correct.