Which of the following correctly identifies the essential elements that must exist for an agency relationship to be created?
Opening subject page...
Loading your content
CPA Regulation Reg Quiz
Practice Identify Agency Relationships And Authority in CPA Regulation Reg with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.
Question 1 / 20
0 of 20 answered
Which of the following correctly identifies the essential elements that must exist for an agency relationship to be created?
This quiz focuses on Identify Agency Relationships And Authority, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for CPA Regulation Reg.
Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.
Which of the following correctly identifies the essential elements that must exist for an agency relationship to be created?
Explanation: An agency relationship requires three core elements: (1) mutual consent - both the principal and agent must agree to the relationship; (2) the agent acts on behalf of the principal - the agent represents the principal's interests; and (3) the principal has the right to control the agent's conduct. No written agreement, formal document, or compensation is required. Agency may be created by informal oral agreement. Answer A is incorrect because writing and compensation are not required. Answer C is incorrect because a power of attorney and consideration are not mandatory. Answer D is incorrect because no court approval or state registration is required.
An agent purchases office supplies on behalf of a principal. The agent's purchase contract does not mention that they are acting for anyone else. Is this an example of a disclosed, partially disclosed, or undisclosed principal situation?
Explanation: An undisclosed principal situation arises when a third party does not know that the agent is acting on behalf of any principal - they believe they are dealing with the agent personally. In this scenario, the agent purchased supplies without indicating they were acting for anyone else. The third party assumed they were dealing directly with the agent. Both the agent and the undisclosed principal may be held liable on the contract when the principal's identity is later revealed. Answer B is incorrect because business purpose has no bearing on the disclosure classification. Answer C describes a partially disclosed situation (where the third party knows there is a principal but not the principal's identity). Answer D is incorrect because the principal relationship exists even without disclosure.
Which of the following correctly identifies a 'special agent' as opposed to a 'general agent' in agency law?
Explanation: A general agent is authorized to conduct a series of transactions involving a continuity of service, such as a manager who runs a business on behalf of an absent owner. A special agent is authorized to perform only a specific transaction or a limited set of acts, such as a real estate agent retained only to sell a specific property. The scope of the special agent's authority is narrowly defined. Answer A reverses the comparison (special agents have narrower, not broader, authority). Answer B incorrectly describes the general agent. Answer D incorrectly requires licensing for special agents.
Under the law of agency, which of the following describes how an agency relationship may be terminated?
Explanation: Agency relationships may be terminated in several ways: (1) by act of the parties - the principal may revoke the agent's authority or the agent may renounce the agency; (2) by operation of law - death or mental incapacity of either party, bankruptcy of either party in some cases, destruction of the subject matter, or a change in law making the agency purpose illegal; and (3) upon completion of the purpose for which the agency was created or expiration of the agreed term. Answer A is incorrect because agents may also terminate by renunciation. Answer B is incorrect because either party may terminate unilaterally (though this may give rise to liability for breach of contract). Answer C is incorrect because there is no automatic one-year termination.
Which of the following correctly describes the concept of 'agency by estoppel'?
Explanation: Agency by estoppel is closely related to apparent authority. It arises when a principal's words or conduct reasonably lead a third party to believe that an agent has authority, and the third party relies on this belief to their detriment. The principal is then estopped (barred) from denying that an agency existed. This prevents principals from benefiting from third parties' reasonable reliance while disclaiming the agency relationship. Answer A incorrectly describes a modification scenario. Answer C is incorrect because gratuitous services do not automatically create agency by estoppel. Answer D is incorrect because this is a civil, not criminal, doctrine.
A power of attorney is a written instrument by which a principal appoints an agent. What is a 'durable' power of attorney?
Explanation: A durable power of attorney (DPOA) is a power of attorney that contains specific language (such as 'this power of attorney shall not be affected by my subsequent disability or incapacity') that allows the agent's authority to survive the principal's later incapacity. Under common law, a principal's incapacity would automatically terminate the agency; the DPOA is an exception created by statute in all states. Answer A is incorrect because a DPOA is still revocable by a competent principal. Answer C is incorrect because DPOAs do not automatically renew. Answer D is incorrect because the scope of authority granted is separate from the durability feature.
Which of the following circumstances would create an 'agency coupled with an interest,' making the agency irrevocable?
Explanation: An agency coupled with an interest is one where the agent has a property interest in the subject matter of the agency itself (not merely an interest in earning compensation). This makes the agency irrevocable - the principal cannot terminate it without the agent's consent. A classic example is when a creditor is given authority to sell the debtor's property and apply the proceeds to the debt - the creditor has a direct financial interest in the subject matter (the property and the proceeds). Answer B (long service) does not create irrevocability. Answer C (power of attorney) is generally revocable unless it is both durable and coupled with an interest. Answer D (moral interest) does not create an irrevocable agency.
Under agency law, which of the following describes the agent's duty to obey the principal's instructions?
Explanation: An agent owes the principal a duty to obey reasonable and lawful instructions. The agent is obligated to act in accordance with the principal's direction within the scope of the agency. However, this duty does not require the agent to perform illegal acts or acts that violate professional ethics. An agent must refuse instructions that are illegal or unethical. Answer A is incorrect because illegal or unethical instructions need not be followed. Answer C is incorrect because personal disagreement with a lawful instruction does not justify non-compliance. Answer D is incorrect because the duty to obey applies to oral instructions as well.
Which of the following correctly describes the duties an agent owes to the principal in an agency relationship?
Explanation: An agent owes the principal several fiduciary duties: (1) duty of loyalty - to act solely in the principal's best interests and avoid conflicts; (2) duty of care - to act with reasonable skill and competence; (3) duty to obey - to follow lawful and reasonable instructions; (4) duty of accounting - to account for all money or property belonging to the principal; and (5) duty to inform - to communicate information relevant to the agency. Answer A is incorrect because loyalty is just one of several duties. Answer C is incorrect because agents owe primary fiduciary duties to the principal. Answer D incorrectly limits the duties to task completion only.
Which of the following correctly describes a 'disclosed principal' in an agency transaction?
Explanation: A disclosed principal is one whose existence and identity are known to the third party at the time the contract is made. The third party knows they are dealing with an agent acting on behalf of a specific, identified principal. In this situation, the contract is generally between the principal and the third party, and the agent is not personally liable (absent personal guarantees). Answer B is incorrect because no public registration is required. Answer C is incorrect because co-signing is not required. Answer D is incorrect because there is no requirement for official identification.
Which of the following correctly identifies when a principal may be liable for the agent's misrepresentation to a third party?
Explanation: A principal may be vicariously liable for an agent's fraudulent or negligent misrepresentation if the misrepresentation was made within the scope of actual or apparent authority. The principal creates the situation enabling the agent to make representations, and the third party who relies on those representations may hold the principal responsible. Answer A is incorrect because vicarious liability extends to agent misrepresentations within scope. Answer B is incorrect because vicarious liability is a fundamental principle of agency law. Answer D is incorrect because oral misrepresentations within scope can also bind the principal.
Under agency law, a 'gratuitous agent' is one who acts without compensation. Which of the following correctly describes the legal status of a gratuitous agent?
Explanation: Agency does not require compensation (consideration). A gratuitous agent is legally recognized as an agent and has the same power to bind the principal within the scope of their authority. The gratuitous agent also owes the same fiduciary duties (loyalty, care, obedience) as a compensated agent. However, a gratuitous agent may have a lower standard of care in some jurisdictions because they are performing services as a favor. Answer A is incorrect because authority is not contingent on compensation. Answer B is incorrect because fiduciary duties exist regardless of compensation. Answer C is incorrect because agency does not require consideration.
An agent is authorized to sell property for the principal for no less than 200,000.Theagentinsteadsellsthepropertyfor180,000 without the principal's knowledge. Which of the following correctly describes the legal consequences?
Explanation: Even though the agent exceeded their actual authority (sell for no less than 200,000)byaccepting180,000, if the third party (buyer) was unaware of the price restriction, the principal may be bound under apparent authority principles. The agent had apparent authority to sell based on their role. However, the agent has breached their duty to the principal by violating the express restriction, and the principal may recover damages from the agent for the $20,000 shortfall. Answer A is incorrect because the contract is not automatically void if apparent authority existed. Answer B is incorrect because the agent breached their duty. Answer C is the right outcome (the sale may bind) but doesn't address the agent's breach.
Under agency law, which of the following best describes 'actual authority'?
Explanation: Actual authority is authority that the agent reasonably believes they have as a result of the principal's manifestations to the agent, either expressly (through spoken or written words) or impliedly (through the circumstances or course of dealing). It is defined from the agent's perspective based on the principal's communications. Answer A describes apparent authority, which is determined from the third party's perspective based on the principal's conduct. Answer C is incorrect because actual authority does not require a written power of attorney. Answer D is incorrect because years of practice do not create actual authority.
Which of the following best illustrates implied actual authority in an agency relationship?
Explanation: Implied actual authority arises from the circumstances of the agency relationship and what is reasonably necessary or customary to carry out the agent's expressly granted duties. A store manager who is authorized to manage the store has implied authority to order inventory, hire staff, and perform other tasks customarily done by store managers, even without specific authorization for each task. Answer A describes express actual authority. Answer B describes apparent authority (based on third-party impression). Answer D describes ratification, not implied authority.
Which of the following scenarios most clearly illustrates the creation of an agency by necessity?
Explanation: Agency by necessity arises in emergency situations where a person must act on another's behalf to prevent harm or loss, and there is no opportunity to consult with the actual principal. A ship's captain who sells perishable cargo to prevent total loss when unable to reach the owners is acting under necessity to protect the owner's interests. The authority arises from the emergency, not from any express or implied grant. Answer A describes a failed attempt to create express authority. Answer B describes implied authority or a belief-based action. Answer C is express authority.
A principal hires an agent to negotiate a lease for office space. The agent's actual authority is to lease space at no more than 5,000permonth.Theagent,holdingthemselvesoutashavingbroaderauthority,leasesspaceat7,000 per month. The landlord has no knowledge of any restriction. Under which doctrine would the principal most likely be bound?
Explanation: The agent was given actual authority to negotiate leases, which creates apparent authority to enter into leases on standard commercial terms. The $5,000 limitation was an internal restriction unknown to the landlord. Under apparent authority, the principal is bound by the agent's contract because the landlord reasonably believed the agent had authority to negotiate the lease. The principal's remedy is against the agent for breaching actual authority. Answer A is incorrect because ratification applies to unauthorized acts adopted after the fact, not to apparent authority situations. Answer B ignores apparent authority. Answer C describes tort liability, not contract authority.
Which of the following best describes the relationship between an employer and an employee under agency law?
Explanation: Under agency law, an employee is a type of agent. The employer-employee relationship satisfies the agency elements: the employee acts on behalf of the employer (principal), and the employer has the right to control not only the result of the work but also how the work is performed. This control over manner and means distinguishes employees from independent contractors. As agents, employees can bind the employer within the scope of their authority. Answer A is incorrect because employees are not independent contractors. Answer B is incorrect because signing authority is not required for agency. Answer C is incorrect because salary is irrelevant to agency classification.
Under agency law, what are the principal's duties to the agent?
Explanation: The agency relationship creates obligations that run both ways. The principal owes the agent: (1) to pay agreed compensation; (2) to reimburse reasonable expenses incurred in conducting the agency business; (3) to indemnify the agent against losses suffered or liability incurred while acting within authority; and (4) not to interfere with the agent's performance. Answer A is incorrect because the relationship creates mutual duties. Answer C is incorrect because instructions alone are not the only duty. Answer D is incorrect because the principal defines the scope of authority and is not required to provide unlimited authority.
An agent has authority to lease commercial property on behalf of the principal. The agent makes several leases over time. A new agent is appointed to replace the original agent. Which of the following describes how the new agent's appointment affects the existing leases made by the former agent?
Explanation: The termination of an agent's authority has no effect on contracts that were validly entered into while the agent had actual authority. The principal is bound by those past contracts regardless of subsequent changes in agency. Only future transactions are affected by the termination. Answer A is incorrect because past authorized contracts are not affected by termination. Answer B is incorrect because re-signing is not required. Answer D invents a 90-day rule that does not exist.