Two mutually exclusive projects have NPV profiles that intersect at a positive discount rate, known as the crossover rate. What is the most direct cause for the existence of this crossover rate?
AThe projects have substantially different internal rates of return.
BOne project has conventional cash flows while the other has non-conventional cash flows.
CThe projects differ in the scale of their initial investments and/or the timing of their cash flows.
DThe firm's cost of capital is higher than the IRR of at least one of the projects.
Practice Irr And Limitations in Corporate Finance with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.
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Question 1
Two mutually exclusive projects have NPV profiles that intersect at a positive discount rate, known as the crossover rate. What is the most direct cause for the existence of this crossover rate?
The projects have substantially different internal rates of return.
One project has conventional cash flows while the other has non-conventional cash flows.
The projects differ in the scale of their initial investments and/or the timing of their cash flows. (correct answer)
The firm's cost of capital is higher than the IRR of at least one of the projects.
Explanation: A crossover rate exists when the NPV profiles of two projects intersect. This intersection, which can lead to ranking conflicts between NPV and IRR, is caused by differences in the characteristics of the projects' cash flows. Specifically, if projects are of different scale (unequal initial investments) or have different cash flow timing (e.g., one is front-loaded, the other back-loaded), their NPVs will respond differently to changes in the discount rate, causing their profiles to cross. While different IRRs are a result of this, they are not the root cause. The underlying cause is the difference in cash flow scale and/or timing.
Question 2
An analyst is evaluating a project with the following cash flows: Year 0: +$1,000, Year 1: -$2,500, Year 2: +$1,500. The analyst finds that the Net Present Value is positive for all possible positive discount rates. Which statement correctly describes the project's IRR?
The project has two IRRs, one positive and one negative.
The project has no real IRR because the NPV never equals zero. (correct answer)
The project's IRR is infinite, indicating an extremely profitable project.
The project's IRR is equal to the firm's cost of capital.
Explanation: The project has non-conventional cash flows, with two sign changes. While this can lead to multiple IRRs, it can also lead to a situation where no real IRR exists. If the NPV of the project is positive for all relevant discount rates, it means the NPV profile never touches the x-axis. Since the IRR is defined as the discount rate where NPV equals zero, a project whose NPV is always positive has no real IRR. This is a highly desirable project that should be accepted, but it lacks a meaningful IRR metric.
Question 3
A mining project has an initial cost of $1,000,000. It is expected to generate a cash inflow of $5,000,000 in its first year of operation, but requires a $4,200,000 expenditure in its second year for environmental remediation and closure. An analyst notes that this project has two internal rates of return. What is the most appropriate course of action for the firm?
Reject the project, as the existence of multiple IRRs indicates it is inherently unprofitable.
Average the two IRRs and compare this average to the firm's cost of capital to make a decision.
Choose the lower of the two IRRs and accept the project if this rate is above the cost of capital.
Evaluate the project's Net Present Value (NPV) profile across a range of relevant discount rates. (correct answer)
Explanation: The project has non-conventional cash flows (-, +, -), which leads to the multiple IRR problem. In such cases, the standard IRR decision rule is unreliable. The existence of multiple IRRs does not automatically mean the project is unprofitable. Averaging the IRRs or arbitrarily choosing one is not a valid analytical method. The correct approach is to disregard the IRR and instead rely on the Net Present Value (NPV) rule. By calculating the project's NPV at the firm's cost of capital, or by analyzing the NPV profile (a graph of NPV versus discount rate), the firm can make a theoretically sound decision.
Question 4
A biotech venture project promises an exceptionally high IRR of 95%. A senior financial analyst expresses concern about relying on this metric for the investment decision. What is the most significant theoretical limitation of IRR that is highlighted by this high rate?
The project's large scale may be obscuring a lower, more realistic return.
The high IRR suggests the cash flow stream is non-conventional, leading to multiple IRRs.
The IRR calculation implicitly assumes that interim cash flows can be reinvested at the same high rate of 95%. (correct answer)
A high IRR is often associated with a very long payback period, which increases project risk.
Explanation: The primary theoretical weakness of the IRR method is its implicit reinvestment rate assumption. The IRR calculation assumes that all cash flows generated by the project before it terminates can be reinvested at the IRR itself. When the IRR is exceptionally high, such as 95%, this assumption becomes highly unrealistic. It is unlikely that a firm can consistently find new projects that yield a 95% return. The NPV method is often considered superior because it assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital, which is generally a more conservative and achievable rate.
Question 5
A company is considering two mutually exclusive projects, P and Q, with the following cash flows:
Project P: Initial Outlay = $10,000; Inflow Year 1 = $7,000; Inflow Year 2 = $7,000
Project Q: Initial Outlay = $12,000; Inflow Year 1 = $8,000; Inflow Year 2 = $9,000
At what approximate discount rate would the company be indifferent between the two projects?
18.6%
22.5%
28.1% (correct answer)
32.4%
Explanation: The rate at which the company is indifferent is the crossover rate, where the Net Present Value (NPV) of both projects is equal. To find this, we calculate the IRR of the differential cash flows (Project Q - Project P).Differential Cash Flows:
Year 0: (-$12,000) - (-$10,000) = -$2,000
Year 1: $8,000 - $7,000 = $1,000
Year 2: $9,000 - $7,000 = $2,000
Now, find the IRR for this differential stream by setting its NPV to zero:
0=−2000+(1+r)1000+(1+r)22000
This is a quadratic equation. Let x=1+r. The equation becomes −2000x2+1000x+2000=0, which simplifies to 2x2−x−2=0. Using the quadratic formula, x=2(2)−(−1)±(−1)2−4(2)(−2)=41±17. Since 1+r must be positive, we take the positive root: x=41+4.123≈1.28075. Therefore, r=x−1≈0.28075, or 28.1%.
Question 6
A division manager must choose between two mutually exclusive projects. Project Alpha is a software upgrade costing $500,000 with an IRR of 40% and an NPV of $200,000. Project Beta is a plant expansion costing $10,000,000 with an IRR of 18% and an NPV of $2,500,000. The manager's annual bonus is heavily weighted on the average return on investment (ROI) of the projects undertaken. Which statement best describes the potential conflict?
The manager will choose Project Beta because it maximizes firm value, aligning personal incentives with shareholder interests.
The manager will be indifferent between the projects as both have positive NPVs and IRRs well above the company's hurdle rate.
The manager may be incentivized to select Project Alpha due to its higher IRR, which better aligns with their bonus structure. (correct answer)
The manager will likely reject both projects because their risk profiles are too different to make a valid comparison using IRR.
Explanation: This scenario illustrates the scale problem of IRR compounded by an agency problem. While Project Beta offers a vastly superior NPV ($2.5M vs $0.2M) and is the correct choice for maximizing shareholder wealth, the manager's incentives are tied to ROI. The IRR is a measure of return on investment. The manager might prefer Project Alpha because its 40% IRR will have a greater positive impact on their performance evaluation than Project Beta's 18% IRR, even though this choice results in $2.3 million less value for the firm. This conflict between a manager's incentives and the firm's value-maximization goal is a key issue in corporate finance.
Question 7
A company with a cost of capital of 10% is evaluating three independent projects. Project X has an IRR of 15% and a NPV of $2M. Project Y has an IRR of 20% and a NPV of $1.5M. Project Z has an IRR of 9% and a negative NPV. The company has sufficient capital to fund all profitable projects. What is the optimal decision?
Fund only Project X because it has the highest NPV.
Fund only Project Y because it has the highest IRR.
Fund Project X and Project Y. (correct answer)
Fund Projects X, Y, and Z to diversify investments.
Explanation: The key information is that the projects are independent, and the company is not under capital rationing. For independent projects, the firm should accept all projects that increase shareholder wealth. A project increases wealth if its NPV is positive or, equivalently, if its IRR is greater than the cost of capital. Both Project X (IRR 15% > 10%, NPV > 0) and Project Y (IRR 20% > 10%, NPV > 0) meet this criterion. Project Z fails this test (IRR 9% < 10%, NPV < 0). Therefore, the firm should accept both X and Y. The scale and timing problems that can cause IRR and NPV to conflict are only relevant when choosing between mutually exclusive projects.
Question 8
A firm with a 12% cost of capital has a budget of $50 million. It is considering two mutually exclusive projects. Project A costs $50 million, has an IRR of 20%, and an NPV of $15 million. Project B costs $20 million, has an IRR of 30%, and an NPV of $10 million. If Project B is chosen, the remaining $30 million of the budget will be invested in a portfolio of average-risk projects that are expected to earn exactly the cost of capital. Which project should the firm choose?
Project B, because its IRR is 10% higher than Project A's.
Project A, because it generates a higher total NPV for the firm. (correct answer)
Project B, because it generates a $10 million NPV while leaving capital free for other investments.
Either project, as both add significant value and the remaining capital from Project B earns a fair return.
Explanation: This is a scale problem in the context of capital rationing. To make the correct choice, the firm must consider the total NPV generated under each alternative.
Alternative 1: Choose Project A. The total NPV is $15 million.
Alternative 2: Choose Project B. The NPV from Project B is $10 million. The remaining $30 million is invested in projects that earn the cost of capital. By definition, projects that earn the cost of capital have an NPV of $0. Therefore, the total NPV from this alternative is $10 million + $0 = $10 million.
Comparing the two alternatives, choosing Project A yields a total NPV of $15 million, which is greater than the $10 million from choosing Project B. Therefore, Project A should be chosen to maximize shareholder wealth.
Question 9
A company is evaluating two mutually exclusive projects with $1M initial costs, a 3-year payback requirement, and a 10% cost of capital.
Project Lion cash flows: Y1: $200k, Y2: $200k, Y3: $600k, Y4: $600k, Y5: $600k.
Project Eagle has a payback of 2 years, while Project Lion has a payback of 3 years. Which of the following is the most likely scenario regarding their IRR and NPV?
Eagle will have a higher IRR, but Lion will have a higher NPV, creating a ranking conflict. (correct answer)
Lion will have a higher IRR and a higher NPV due to its larger total cash flows.
Eagle will have a higher IRR and a higher NPV because of its faster payback.
Both projects will have similar IRRs and NPVs because their initial costs and payback periods are close.
Explanation: When evaluating mutually exclusive projects, you need to understand that IRR and NPV can sometimes give conflicting rankings, especially when projects have different cash flow timing patterns.Let's analyze these projects systematically. Project Eagle receives most of its cash flows early (500kinyears1−3),whileProjectLionhasmorecashflowsconcentratedinlateryears(600k in years 3-5). This timing difference is crucial for understanding their relative performance.IRR favors projects with earlier cash flows because it represents the discount rate that makes NPV equal zero. Eagle's front-loaded cash flows will generate a higher IRR since early receipts compound longer. However, NPV at a 10% discount rate tells a different story. Lion's total undiscounted cash flows (2,000k)significantlyexceedEagle′s(1,600k). Even after discounting Lion's later cash flows, the sheer magnitude of the additional $400k in cash flows likely gives Lion a higher NPV despite the timing disadvantage.Answer A correctly identifies this IRR-NPV ranking conflict. Answer B is wrong because while Lion has higher total cash flows (supporting higher NPV), its later timing actually hurts its IRR relative to Eagle. Answer C incorrectly assumes faster payback automatically means both higher IRR and NPV - payback ignores cash flows beyond the payback period and time value effects. Answer D is wrong because the projects have substantially different cash flow patterns and magnitudes, making similar returns unlikely.Study tip: IRR-NPV conflicts typically occur when comparing projects with different scales or timing. Always calculate both metrics for mutually exclusive projects, and remember NPV is generally the superior decision criterion.
Question 10
For a particular project, the IRR is calculated to be exactly 0%. Assuming this is an investment project with a negative initial cash flow followed by positive cash flows, what does an IRR of 0% imply?
The sum of the undiscounted future cash inflows is exactly equal to the initial investment. (correct answer)
The Net Present Value of the project is also zero, regardless of the cost of capital.
The project generates no cash inflows after the initial investment.
The project is a financing-type project, not an investment-type project.
Explanation: When you encounter an IRR question, remember that IRR is the discount rate that makes the Net Present Value (NPV) equal to zero. Understanding what this means mathematically will help you solve these problems systematically.An IRR of exactly 0% means that when you discount all future cash flows at 0% (which means no discounting at all), the NPV equals zero. This occurs when: InitialInvestment=∑t=1n(1+0)tCFt=∑t=1nCFtSince dividing by (1+0)t equals 1, you're simply adding up the undiscounted future cash flows. For NPV to equal zero, this sum must exactly equal the initial investment outlay.Choice A correctly captures this relationship - the undiscounted future cash inflows equal the initial investment.Choice B is wrong because NPV only equals zero when the discount rate equals the IRR. If your cost of capital differs from 0%, the NPV will be positive (if cost of capital < 0%) or negative (if cost of capital > 0%).Choice C misunderstands the scenario. An IRR of 0% doesn't mean zero cash inflows; it means the undiscounted inflows exactly recover your investment without any return.Choice D confuses project types. The question explicitly states this is an investment project with negative initial cash flow followed by positive flows - the classic investment pattern.Study tip: Always remember that IRR is the "break-even" discount rate. When IRR equals 0%, you break even in nominal terms with no time value adjustment - your undiscounted cash flows simply recover your investment.
Question 11
A company enters into a strategic partnership where it receives an upfront payment of $5 million. In return, the company is obligated to make annual payments of $1.2 million for the next 5 years. The IRR of this cash flow stream is calculated to be 6.4%. The company's WACC is 8%. What is the correct decision?
Reject the deal, because the IRR of 6.4% is less than the cost of capital of 8%.
Accept the deal, because the IRR is positive, indicating a profitable venture.
Accept the deal, because it represents a financing source with a cost below the firm's WACC. (correct answer)
The decision cannot be made with IRR; NPV must be calculated to confirm.
Explanation: This project has non-conventional cash flows (+, -, -, -, -, -), which represent a financing activity, not an investment activity. The company is essentially borrowing $5 million and paying it back over time. The IRR of 6.4% represents the effective interest rate on this loan. The firm's WACC of 8% represents the cost of its alternative sources of capital. Since the company can 'borrow' at 6.4%, which is less than its 8% cost of capital, this is a favorable financing opportunity and should be accepted. The standard IRR rule for investing projects (IRR > WACC) is reversed for financing projects.
Question 12
A firm is analyzing a project with non-conventional cash flows that produce multiple IRRs, making the standard IRR rule unusable. To resolve this, the finance team calculates the Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR). Which feature of the MIRR calculation is the primary reason it resolves the multiple IRR problem?
MIRR discounts all negative cash flows to the present and compounds all positive cash flows to the end of the project's life. (correct answer)
MIRR uses the weighted average cost of capital as the reinvestment rate, which is more conservative than the IRR.
MIRR is calculated based on the project's payback period, which ensures a single positive return figure.
MIRR produces a smaller value than IRR, which prevents managers from accepting overly risky projects.
Explanation: The multiple IRR problem arises from multiple sign changes in the cash flow stream. The MIRR calculation methodology directly resolves this. It rearranges the cash flows by discounting all negative cash flows (except the initial investment) to time 0 using a financing rate, and compounding all positive cash flows to the final year of the project using a reinvestment rate. This process results in a conventional cash flow stream with only one initial outflow and one terminal inflow, which mathematically guarantees a single, unique rate of return. While MIRR does use the WACC (distractor B), it's the structural rearrangement of cash flows (distractor A) that specifically solves the multiple IRR issue.
Question 13
A project has an IRR of 12%. The company's weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is currently 10%. Due to a change in monetary policy, the risk-free rate increases, causing the company's WACC to rise to 13%. Assuming the project's expected cash flows do not change, what is the effect on the project's IRR and its investment attractiveness?
The IRR decreases to reflect the higher WACC, and the project becomes unattractive.
The IRR remains at 12%, but the project, which was previously attractive, is now unattractive. (correct answer)
The IRR remains at 12%, and the project's attractiveness is unchanged because IRR is an absolute measure.
Both the IRR and the NPV of the project decrease.
Explanation: The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is an intrinsic characteristic of a project's cash flows. It is the discount rate that makes the NPV equal to zero. As such, the IRR is independent of the company's cost of capital. A change in WACC does not change the IRR. However, the project's investment attractiveness, determined by comparing the IRR to the WACC (or by calculating NPV), does change. Initially, the project was attractive because its IRR of 12% was greater than the WACC of 10%. After the WACC increases to 13%, the project's IRR of 12% is now less than the cost of capital, making it an unattractive investment (i.e., its NPV becomes negative).
Question 14
A project requires an initial outlay of $10,000, followed by five years of equal cash inflows. Its IRR is calculated to be 15%. If management revises the estimate for the Year 2 cash inflow upwards by $1,000, and the estimate for the Year 5 cash inflow downwards by $1,000, what is the most likely impact on the project's IRR?
The IRR will remain unchanged because the total undiscounted cash inflows are the same.
The IRR will decrease because the reduction in the final cash flow has a greater discounting impact.
The IRR will increase because the time value of money gives more weight to the earlier cash inflow. (correct answer)
The impact cannot be determined without knowing the original cash flow amounts.
Explanation: This question tests the understanding of the time value of money within the IRR calculation. The IRR is the discount rate that equates the present value of future cash inflows with the initial investment. A dollar received earlier is worth more in present value terms than a dollar received later. Therefore, increasing an earlier cash flow (Year 2) has a greater positive impact on the present value than the negative impact of decreasing a later cash flow (Year 5) by the same nominal amount. To maintain the equality between the initial outlay and the present value of inflows, the discount rate (IRR) must increase.
Question 15
A firm is evaluating two mutually exclusive projects. Project A requires an initial investment of $100,000 and is expected to generate a single cash flow of $150,000 in one year. Project B requires an initial investment of $500,000 and is expected to generate a single cash flow of $650,000 in one year. The firm's weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is 10%. Which project should be chosen and why?
Project A, because its Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of 50% is higher than Project B's IRR of 30%.
Project B, because its Net Present Value (NPV) of $90,909 is higher than Project A's NPV of $36,364. (correct answer)
Neither project, because the IRR and NPV rules provide conflicting recommendations for these projects.
Project B, because it is a larger-scale project and will therefore contribute more to firm growth.
Explanation: This question illustrates the scale problem of IRR when comparing mutually exclusive projects. First, calculate the IRR and NPV for each project.Project A:
IRR: $100,000 = $150,000 / (1 + IRR) => 1 + IRR = 1.5 => IRR = 50%
NPV: NPV = -$100,000 + $150,000 / (1.10) = -$100,000 + $136,364 = $36,364Project B:
IRR: $500,000 = $650,000 / (1 + IRR) => 1 + IRR = 1.3 => IRR = 30%
NPV: NPV = -$500,000 + $650,000 / (1.10) = -$500,000 + $590,909 = $90,909Although Project A has a higher IRR, Project B has a significantly higher NPV. When NPV and IRR conflict for mutually exclusive projects, the NPV rule should be followed because it measures the absolute increase in shareholder wealth. Therefore, Project B is the correct choice.
Question 16
A technology startup is comparing two software development projects. Project Alpha has an IRR of 45% with cash flows of -100k,+80k, +75koverthreeyears.ProjectBetashowsanIRRof35500k, +300k,+350k over the same period. If the company can only fund one project and has a 15% cost of capital, what is the most critical limitation of using IRR for this decision?
IRR assumes cash flows can be reinvested at the IRR rate rather than the more realistic cost of capital
The scale difference means IRR ignores the absolute wealth creation potential of the larger project (correct answer)
IRR analysis is invalid for technology projects due to their inherent uncertainty and rapid obsolescence
The different project sizes make IRR comparison meaningless without adjusting for risk differences
Explanation: This demonstrates IRR's scale limitation. While Project Alpha has a higher IRR (45% vs 35%), Project Beta creates significantly more absolute value. At 15% cost of capital, Project Beta's NPV is approximately $54,012 while Project Alpha's NPV is only $19,095. IRR's focus on percentage returns masks the fact that Project Beta creates nearly three times more wealth. Choice A describes a theoretical limitation but isn't the most critical issue here; Choice C incorrectly suggests IRR is invalid for certain industries; Choice D introduces risk considerations not mentioned in the problem.
Question 17
An oil company is evaluating a drilling project with these cash flows: Year 0: -80M,Year1:+200M, Year 2: -$130M. The finance team reports they cannot determine a single meaningful IRR. What mathematical condition creates this problem, and what would be the recommended approach?
Negative final cash flow violates IRR assumptions; use modified IRR with terminal value reinvestment
Two sign changes create multiple IRRs; use NPV analysis or modified IRR at the cost of capital (correct answer)
Large cash flow volatility makes IRR unstable; use profitability index for better comparison
Short project life distorts IRR calculation; extend analysis period or use equivalent annual annuity
Explanation: The cash flow sequence (-80M,+200M, -$130M) has two sign changes, which by Descartes' rule can produce up to two positive IRRs. This makes standard IRR analysis meaningless since there are two discount rates that make NPV equal zero. The solution is either to use NPV directly (which works regardless of cash flow patterns) or modified IRR, which addresses the multiple IRR problem by assuming reinvestment at the cost of capital. Choice A misidentifies the core issue; Choice C suggests an unrelated metric; Choice D incorrectly focuses on project duration.
Question 18
A real estate development project has cash flows of -10M(Year0),+25M (Year 1), and -$16.5M (Year 2). The development team claims the project is profitable because 'it has positive IRRs.' Upon verification, the IRRs are found to be 10% and 50%. If the company's cost of capital is 8%, what should be the correct evaluation approach?
Accept the project because the lower IRR of 10% still exceeds the 8% cost of capital threshold
Apply sensitivity analysis to determine which IRR is more robust under different economic scenarios
Use the higher IRR of 50% as it represents the project's maximum potential return under optimal conditions
Calculate NPV at 8% cost of capital, which yields approximately -$0.97M, indicating the project should be rejected (correct answer)
Explanation: When you encounter a project with non-conventional cash flows (alternating signs), you need to be alert for multiple IRRs, which creates a fundamental problem with IRR-based decision making.This project exhibits the classic multiple IRR scenario: negative initial investment, positive cash flow, then another negative cash flow. When you solve for IRR, you get two solutions (10% and 50%) because the IRR equation becomes a quadratic with two roots. In such cases, IRR becomes meaningless as a decision tool because you can't determine which rate to compare against your cost of capital.The correct approach is to calculate NPV using the 8% cost of capital:
NPV=−10+1.0825+(1.08)2−16.5=−10+23.15−14.12=−0.97Since NPV is negative, reject the project. Answer D is correct.Answer A fails because comparing either IRR to the cost of capital is invalid when multiple IRRs exist. Answer B suggests sensitivity analysis, but this doesn't resolve the fundamental multiple IRR problem - you still can't determine which IRR is "correct" for comparison. Answer C incorrectly assumes the higher IRR represents maximum potential return, but with multiple IRRs, neither rate has meaningful economic interpretation.Study tip: Whenever you see non-conventional cash flows (cash flows that change sign more than once), immediately default to NPV analysis. Multiple IRRs make IRR unreliable, but NPV always gives you a clear accept/reject decision.
Question 19
A corporate finance manager is comparing two acquisition targets. Target A requires $100M and has projected IRR of 18%. Target B requires $800M and has projected IRR of 16%. Both have 10-year cash flow projections and the acquirer's cost of capital is 11%. The manager argues that Target A is superior 'because it offers 200 basis points higher returns.' What analytical flaw undermines this reasoning?
The comparison ignores that Target B likely creates substantially more absolute shareholder value despite lower percentage returns (correct answer)
IRR calculations for acquisitions are unreliable due to integration costs and synergy uncertainties not captured in projections
Different acquisition sizes require risk-adjusted IRR comparisons using beta-adjusted discount rates for each target
Ten-year projections make IRR analysis inappropriate; acquisitions should use shorter-term payback period analysis instead
Explanation: When evaluating investment projects or acquisitions, you need to distinguish between percentage returns (like IRR) and absolute value creation. While IRR is useful for screening projects above your cost of capital, it doesn't tell the complete story about shareholder value.Target A generates an 18% IRR on $100M, while Target B generates 16% IRR on $800M. Both exceed the 11% cost of capital, so both create value. However, the absolute dollar value created differs dramatically. Target B's larger scale means that even at a lower percentage return, it likely generates far more total shareholder value than Target A's higher percentage return on a much smaller base.Let's examine why the other answers miss the mark. Answer B suggests IRR is unreliable due to integration costs and synergy uncertainties, but this applies equally to both targets and doesn't address the core comparison flaw. Answer C incorrectly assumes different risk profiles require beta adjustments—the question provides no evidence the targets have different risk characteristics. Answer D wrongly dismisses IRR analysis for long-term projections in favor of payback periods, but payback analysis would be less sophisticated and wouldn't solve the comparison problem.The manager's reasoning commits a classic error: focusing solely on percentage returns while ignoring scale effects. This is like choosing a 20% return on $1 over a 15% return on $100—the absolute value matters enormously.Study tip: In corporate finance, always consider both relative returns AND absolute value creation. Higher IRR doesn't automatically mean better investment when project sizes differ significantly.
Question 20
An analyst is evaluating a mining project with the following cash flows: Year 0: -50million,Year1:+150 million, Year 2: -$110 million. The company's cost of capital is 12%. What challenge does this project present for IRR analysis?
The IRR cannot be calculated because the initial cash flow is negative, violating conventional assumptions
The project has multiple IRRs (approximately 10% and 40%) due to sign changes in cash flows (correct answer)
The IRR will be artificially low due to the large reinvestment requirement in Year 2
The project's IRR is meaningless because the payback period exceeds the project life
Explanation: This cash flow pattern (-,+,-) creates multiple IRRs due to Descartes' rule of signs - there can be as many positive IRRs as there are sign changes in the cash flow sequence. With two sign changes, this project has two IRRs at approximately 10% and 40%. This makes IRR analysis ambiguous since both rates make NPV equal zero. Choice A is incorrect as negative initial flows are normal; Choice C misunderstands the multiple IRR issue; Choice D incorrectly applies payback concepts.