All questions
Question 1
OFFICE NOTE: Patient is a 62-year-old male with a known diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes mellitus, managed on metformin and insulin. Lab results today show an eGFR of 42 mL/min/1.73m2, consistent with Stage 3 chronic kidney disease. The physician documents: 'Type 2 diabetic chronic kidney disease, Stage 3.' Plan includes nephrology referral and ACE inhibitor therapy.
Which ICD-10-CM code is assigned for the diabetic kidney complication?
- E11.65
- E11.22 (correct answer)
- E11.29
- E11.9
Explanation: ICD-10-CM code E11.22 describes Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic chronic kidney disease — the correct code when the physician documents a causal relationship between the patient's Type 2 DM and CKD. An additional code from N18.- is assigned to specify the CKD stage (e.g., N18.3 for Stage 3). Code E11.65 describes Type 2 DM with hyperglycemia and is not used to capture kidney complications; it is one of the most common DM coding errors on the CPC exam. Code E11.29 describes Type 2 DM with other diabetic kidney complication and is used for conditions such as diabetic glomerulosclerosis not classified as CKD. Code E11.9 describes Type 2 DM without complications, which is incorrect when a diabetic complication (CKD) is documented.
Question 2
OPERATIVE NOTE: On Monday, a surgeon performed a right simple mastectomy for ductal carcinoma in situ (DXIS Stage 0). The patient remained within the global postoperative period. Fourteen days later, the same surgeon performed a planned right breast reconstruction with tissue expander placement, which had been discussed and scheduled before the mastectomy.
Which modifier is appended to the reconstruction procedure to indicate it is a staged, planned procedure by the same surgeon during the postoperative period?
- 58 (correct answer)
- 79
- 78
- 24
Explanation: Modifier 58 is appended to a staged or related procedure or service performed by the same physician during the postoperative period of a prior procedure, when the subsequent procedure was planned prospectively at the time of the original procedure or is required because of the prior procedure. Breast reconstruction following mastectomy is a classic example of a staged planned procedure. Modifier 79 describes an unrelated procedure during the postoperative period — reconstruction is directly related to the mastectomy, so 79 is incorrect. Modifier 78 indicates a return to the operating room for treatment of a complication arising from the prior procedure; reconstruction is not a complication. Modifier 24 applies to unrelated evaluation and management services during the postoperative period, not to surgical procedures.
Question 3
OFFICE NOTE: A general surgeon performs an office consultation with a patient referred for evaluation of a symptomatic gallstone. At the conclusion of the visit, the surgeon decides to schedule an open cholecystectomy to be performed the following morning. An E&M service is documented on the date of the consultation.
Which modifier is appended to the E&M service reported by the surgeon for the consultation visit?
- 57 (correct answer)
- 25
- 24
- 56
Explanation: Modifier 57 is appended to an evaluation and management service when the service results in the initial decision to perform a major surgical procedure (90-day global period). An open cholecystectomy carries a 90-day global period; an E&M performed the day before (or the same day) a major surgery in which the physician makes the decision to operate requires modifier 57. Modifier 25 is used when a significant, separately identifiable E&M is performed on the same day as a minor procedure (10-day global period) — it is not appropriate for major surgery. Modifier 24 applies to unrelated E&M services during an established postoperative global period — no global period is active at this encounter. Modifier 56 (preoperative management only) applies when a physician provides only preoperative care and another surgeon performs the operation — not applicable here.
Question 4
PROCEDURE NOTE: Patient is a 68-year-old male who underwent a total right knee arthroplasty 5 days ago. He presents today with significant right knee swelling and pain. The treating orthopedic surgeon (same surgeon who performed the arthroplasty) takes the patient back to the operating room and performs open drainage of an acute postoperative hematoma of the right knee, related to the prior arthroplasty.
Which modifier is appended to the hematoma drainage procedure to indicate a return to the operating room for a complication of a prior procedure during the global period?
- 24
- 58
- 78 (correct answer)
- 79
Explanation: Modifier 78 indicates an unplanned return to the operating room by the same physician for treatment of a complication of the original procedure during the global postoperative period. Acute postoperative hematoma requiring surgical drainage is a direct complication of the arthroplasty, and the same surgeon is returning to the OR within the global period — the hallmarks of modifier 78. Modifier 24 applies to unrelated E&M services during the postoperative period, not to procedures. Modifier 58 is used for staged or related procedures that were planned prospectively — a complication requiring unplanned return to the OR is not a staged procedure. Modifier 79 indicates an unrelated procedure during the postoperative period; this hematoma drainage is directly related to the prior arthroplasty.
Question 5
OPERATIVE NOTE: Patient is a 55-year-old female undergoing elective laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy. Pre-operatively, the anesthesiologist's note requests a routine preoperative evaluation by the internist. The internist's visit note documents a complete history and physical examination, review of labs, and clearance for anesthesia. No cardiovascular abnormalities are identified.
Which ICD-10-CM code is assigned as the primary reason for the internist's preoperative evaluation encounter?
- Z01.810
- Z01.811
- Z01.812
- Z01.818 (correct answer)
Explanation: ICD-10-CM code Z01.818 describes an encounter for other preprocedural examinations — the correct code for a routine general preoperative clearance visit when no specific cardiovascular, respiratory, or laboratory-specific evaluation is the stated purpose. Code Z01.810 describes a preprocedural cardiovascular examination specifically and applies only when the purpose of the evaluation is cardiac clearance — no cardiovascular issues are identified here and the examination is a general clearance. Code Z01.811 describes a preprocedural respiratory examination. Code Z01.812 describes a preprocedural laboratory examination. Z01.818 is the appropriate catch-all for general preoperative clearance visits that do not fit the more specific Z01.810–Z01.812 categories; the additional diagnoses evaluated during the visit are coded as secondary diagnoses.
Question 6
OFFICE NOTE: Patient is a 71-year-old female with Type 2 diabetes mellitus managed on oral agents. She presents today reporting numbness and tingling in both feet for the past year. Neurological examination demonstrates decreased monofilament sensation bilaterally. The physician documents: 'Type 2 DM with peripheral diabetic neuropathy, unspecified.'
Which ICD-10-CM code is assigned for the diabetic neuropathy?
- E11.40 (correct answer)
- E11.65
- E11.22
- E11.9
Explanation: ICD-10-CM code E11.40 describes Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic neuropathy, unspecified — the correct code when the physician documents peripheral neuropathy as a diabetic complication without specifying a more precise neuropathy type. Code E11.65 describes Type 2 DM with hyperglycemia and is used when elevated glucose is the complication being addressed, not neuropathy. Code E11.22 describes Type 2 DM with diabetic chronic kidney disease — a renal, not neurological, complication. Code E11.9 describes Type 2 DM without complication; since a complication (neuropathy) is documented, E11.9 is incorrect. When a more specific neuropathy type is documented — such as mononeuropathy (E11.41) or autonomic neuropathy (E11.43) — the more specific code is preferred, but E11.40 is appropriate when the documentation specifies only peripheral neuropathy, unspecified.
Question 7
OPERATIVE NOTE: A dermatologist performs paring and cutting of a hyperkeratotic skin lesion (plantar callus) (11056) and separately excises a different benign lesion from an unrelated anatomic site (11401) during the same encounter. Both procedures are fully documented. The dermatologist submits both codes on the same claim.
Which modifier is appended to the lower-value secondary procedure to indicate multiple procedures were performed in the same session?
- 25
- 51 (correct answer)
- 59
- 58
Explanation: Modifier 51 is appended to additional surgical procedures (other than the primary procedure with the highest RVU) when multiple surgical procedures are performed by the same provider in the same operative session. The payer uses modifier 51 to apply the standard multiple-procedure fee reduction (typically 50% of the allowable for the secondary procedure). Modifier 25 is an E&M modifier used when a significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service is performed on the same date as a procedure — it does not apply between two surgical procedures. Modifier 59 identifies a distinct procedural service to bypass a CCI bundling edit; since 11056 and 11401 are not a bundled pair, modifier 59 is not needed to report them together. Modifier 58 indicates a staged or related procedure during a global period, which does not apply here.
Question 8
OFFICE NOTE: Patient is a 52-year-old female presenting to the dermatologist for a scheduled cryotherapy treatment of an actinic keratosis on the forearm. During the same visit, the patient mentions a new, mildly pruritic rash on the trunk. The dermatologist performs a complete separate evaluation, documents findings consistent with contact dermatitis, and prescribes a topical corticosteroid. Both the cryotherapy and the evaluation of the new rash are fully documented.
Which modifier is appended to the E&M service to allow it to be separately reported on the same date as the cryotherapy?
- 25 (correct answer)
- 57
- 51
- 24
Explanation: Modifier 25 is required on the E&M service when a significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service is provided on the same date as a minor procedure. Cryotherapy for actinic keratosis is a minor procedure; the evaluation of a new, unrelated dermatologic condition (contact dermatitis) constitutes a separate, independently documented E&M service that goes beyond the pre- and post-procedure work associated with the cryotherapy itself. Modifier 57 applies only when the E&M results in the decision to perform a major surgical procedure (90-day global); cryotherapy is a minor procedure. Modifier 51 applies to multiple surgical procedures, not E&M services. Modifier 24 applies to unrelated E&M services during an active postoperative global period — no global period is applicable here.
Question 9
OPERATIVE NOTE: Patient is a 67-year-old male with right-sided colon cancer. The surgeon performs a laparoscopic right hemicolectomy. During the procedure, moderate omental adhesions are encountered and lysed to facilitate adequate visualization and mobilization of the right colon. The surgeon notes 'adhesiolysis performed to complete the colectomy.' No separate procedure report for adhesiolysis is generated.
May the surgeon additionally report CPT 44180 (laparoscopic lysis of adhesions) on this claim?
- Yes, with modifier 59 since it is a distinct service
- Yes, with modifier 51 for multiple procedures
- Yes, modifier 22 should be appended to the colectomy instead
- No, incidental adhesiolysis to access the operative site is not separately reportable (correct answer)
Explanation: Lysis of adhesions performed to gain access to the primary operative site is considered incidental to the primary procedure and is not separately reportable under CPT guidelines. CCI bundles 44180 into laparoscopic colectomy (44204) when adhesiolysis is performed only to facilitate the primary procedure. Modifier 59 cannot be used to unbundle a service that is inherently a component of the primary procedure at the same site; modifier 59 is appropriate only when the services are truly separate and distinct. If the adhesiolysis were extensive, separately medically necessary, and independently documented, separate reporting might be supported — but the operative note here identifies the adhesiolysis solely as access work for the colectomy.
Question 10
EMERGENCY DEPARTMENT NOTE: Patient is a 61-year-old male presenting with acute crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and ST elevations in the inferior leads (II, III, and aVF) on ECG. Troponin elevated. Cardiology is contacted and the patient is taken emergently to the cardiac catheterization laboratory. Working diagnosis: acute inferior ST-elevation myocardial infarction.
Which ICD-10-CM code category is assigned for this acute inferior STEMI?
- I21.1 (correct answer)
- I22.1
- I25.2
- I21.3
Explanation: ICD-10-CM code category I21.1 describes ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) involving the inferior wall — the correct category when ST elevations are present in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) and the clinical picture confirms an acute STEMI involving the inferior wall (typically the right coronary artery territory). Code I22.1 describes a subsequent STEMI of the inferior wall occurring within 28 days of a prior MI; this is a first event with no documentation of a prior recent MI. Code I25.2 describes old (healed) myocardial infarction occurring more than 4 weeks prior — the current event is acute. Code I21.3 describes STEMI of unspecified site; when the wall affected (inferior) is known from ECG findings, the more specific code (I21.1) should be used.
Question 11
OFFICE NOTE: Patient is a 28-year-old female who has had Type 1 diabetes mellitus since childhood, currently managed with an insulin pump. She presents today for evaluation of a new non-healing ulcer on the plantar surface of the right foot. The physician documents: 'Type 1 DM with right foot ulcer (plantar surface).' An additional code is required for the ulcer site.
Which ICD-10-CM code is assigned for the diabetic foot ulcer in a patient with Type 1 DM?
- E11.621
- E10.621 (correct answer)
- E11.641
- E10.641
Explanation: ICD-10-CM code E10.621 describes Type 1 diabetes mellitus with foot ulcer — the correct code because the physician documents Type 1 (not Type 2) DM. An additional code from L97.4- or L97.5- is assigned to specify the ulcer site. Code E11.621 describes Type 2 DM with foot ulcer; this patient has Type 1 DM. A common error is defaulting to Type 2 codes when a patient uses insulin — insulin use alone does not indicate Type 1 DM unless the physician explicitly documents Type 1. Code E10.641 describes Type 1 DM with hypoglycemia without coma — a different diabetic complication. Code E11.641 describes Type 2 DM with hypoglycemia without coma — also incorrect in type and complication. The E10 vs. E11 classification (Type 1 vs. Type 2) is determined solely by physician documentation.
Question 12
OFFICE NOTE: Patient is a 50-year-old male who had an open inguinal hernia repair 12 days ago. He presents to the operating surgeon's office for his routine 2-week postoperative wound check. The wound is healing well, sutures are intact, no complications are noted. No new or unrelated conditions are addressed at this visit.
How should the surgeon code this routine postoperative follow-up visit?
- Report 99213 with modifier 24
- Report 99213 with modifier 79
- Do not separately report; included in global surgical package (correct answer)
- Report 99213 with modifier 25
Explanation: Routine postoperative care visits within the global surgical package are not separately reportable. CPT's global surgical package includes all necessary postoperative visits for normal, uncomplicated recovery following the procedure, within the applicable global period (typically 90 days for major procedures). A 2-week wound check with no complications and no management of new or unrelated conditions is a standard component of the global package and should not generate a separate E&M claim. Modifier 24 is used for unrelated E&M services during the global period — this is a routine, related postoperative visit. Modifier 79 applies to unrelated procedures during the global period, not E&M visits. Modifier 25 is for significant, separately identifiable E&M on the same day as a procedure, not applicable here.
Question 13
REHABILITATION NOTE: Patient is a 69-year-old male presenting for outpatient physical therapy evaluation 4 months after suffering a left hemisphere cerebral infarction. The acute stroke has resolved; however, the patient has persistent right-sided hemiparesis affecting his dominant right hand and arm, limiting his ADLs.
Which ICD-10-CM code is assigned for this late-effect presentation?
- I69.351 (correct answer)
- I63.9
- G81.91
- Z87.39
Explanation: ICD-10-CM code I69.351 describes hemiplegia and hemiparesis following cerebral infarction affecting the right dominant side — the appropriate code for the residual neurological deficit (right-sided hemiparesis) that persists after the acute stroke has resolved. Category I69 (sequelae of cerebrovascular disease) captures both the historical stroke and the specific current deficit in a single combination code, eliminating the need to also report I63 (acute cerebral infarction) or a separate history code. Code I63.9 describes an acute cerebral infarction, unspecified; the stroke is not currently acute and should not be coded with an acute code once it has resolved. Code G81.91 describes unspecified hemiplegia affecting the right dominant side but lacks the specificity of the stroke-sequela category. Code Z87.39 is a personal history code for metabolic or endocrine diseases — not applicable to neurological sequelae of stroke.
Question 14
OFFICE NOTE: Patient is a 74-year-old male with a long-standing history of essential hypertension, currently managed with an ACE inhibitor. He also has systolic heart failure (EF 35%) diagnosed 2 years ago and attributed by his cardiologist to his hypertension. The visit note documents: 'hypertensive heart disease with systolic heart failure.'
Which ICD-10-CM code combination is assigned for this patient's documented conditions?
- I10 and I50.20 reported separately
- I27.0 and I50.20
- I11.0 and I50.20 (correct answer)
- I13.10 and I50.20
Explanation: ICD-10-CM presumes a causal relationship between hypertension and heart failure when both conditions coexist, per the instructional note at category I11. Code I11.0 describes hypertensive heart disease with heart failure — the combination code used whenever a patient has both essential hypertension and heart failure, replacing separate coding of I10 (essential hypertension) and a heart failure code. An additional code from category I50 is required to specify the type of heart failure (e.g., I50.20 for unspecified systolic heart failure). Separately reporting I10 and I50.20 without I11 is incorrect because ICD-10 guidelines require use of the hypertensive heart disease combination code when both conditions coexist. Code I27.0 describes primary pulmonary hypertension — a different, more severe condition not equivalent to essential hypertension. Code I13.10 describes hypertensive heart and chronic kidney disease — applicable only when CKD is also present.
Question 15
OFFICE NOTE: A surgeon evaluates a new patient in the office for symptoms consistent with a large-bowel obstruction. After reviewing imaging and clinical findings, the surgeon makes the decision to perform an open right colectomy (major surgery, 90-day global period) as urgent intervention, discusses the risks and benefits, obtains informed consent, and documents the operative decision. The colectomy is performed later that same day at the hospital.
Which modifier is appended to the E&M service to allow it to be separately reported on the day of the major surgery?
- 25
- 51
- 58
- 57 (correct answer)
Explanation: Modifier 57 is appended to an E&M service on the day of or the day before a major surgical procedure (90-day global) when that E&M results in the decision to perform the surgery. The open colectomy has a 90-day global period; the surgeon's office visit is the encounter at which the operative decision was made and documented — precisely the scenario for which modifier 57 was created. Modifier 25 is used for significant, separately identifiable E&M on the same day as a minor procedure (10-day global or zero-day global); major surgery requires modifier 57, not 25. Modifier 51 applies to multiple surgical procedures in the same session, not to an E&M. Modifier 58 indicates a staged procedure during the postoperative period — no postoperative period is yet active at this preoperative encounter.
Question 16
OFFICE NOTE: Patient is a 66-year-old male presenting for a routine cardiology follow-up. He had a drug-eluting coronary stent placed in the left anterior descending artery 2 years ago for stable coronary artery disease. He is asymptomatic today, on aspirin and a statin, with no new symptoms or ischemia. The cardiologist documents 'stable coronary artery disease, native vessel.'
Which ICD-10-CM code is assigned as the primary diagnosis for this encounter?
- Z95.5
- I21.19
- I25.10 (correct answer)
- Z48.812
Explanation: ICD-10-CM code I25.10 describes atherosclerotic heart disease of a native coronary artery without angina pectoris — the correct primary diagnosis for a patient with established coronary artery disease who is stable and asymptomatic at the current encounter. Code Z95.5 (presence of coronary angioplasty implant and graft) is an appropriate additional code documenting the stent but is a status code, not a disease diagnosis; it should not be listed as the primary reason for the visit when the underlying CAD (I25.10) can be coded. Code I21.19 describes an acute STEMI involving another coronary artery — an acute event, not a chronic follow-up encounter. Code Z48.812 describes aftercare for surgery on the circulatory system — the patient is 2 years post-procedure, well beyond the surgical aftercare period, and this is a routine chronic disease management visit, not aftercare. The primary diagnosis should reflect the condition actively managed at the encounter.
Question 17
OPERATIVE NOTE: A urologist serves as the surgical assistant during a complex radical cystectomy performed by a gynecologic oncologist. The urologist's role is limited to providing assistance with ureteral dissection and hemostasis. The urologist submits a claim for assistant surgeon services.
Which modifier is appended to the urologist's claim to indicate the assistant surgeon role?
- 62
- 66
- 80 (correct answer)
- 81
Explanation: Modifier 80 designates assistant surgeon services — the correct modifier when a qualified physician physically assists a primary surgeon throughout the procedure, performing the same primary procedure code at a significantly reduced fee. Modifier 62 is used for co-surgery, where two surgeons perform distinctly different portions of a single procedure each requiring the primary surgeon's skills; co-surgery implies two equal primary surgeons, not one assisting the other. Modifier 66 indicates surgical team services for highly complex procedures requiring the simultaneous services of several qualified surgeons (e.g., organ transplant teams); a two-surgeon assist does not constitute a surgical team. Modifier 81 designates minimum assistant surgeon services, used when a qualified resident or other provider assists on a limited basis and the assistance is not required throughout the case.
Question 18
OFFICE NOTE: Patient is a 45-year-old female who had a laparoscopic appendectomy performed 10 days ago by her surgeon. She presents today to the same surgeon's office complaining of a sore throat, nasal congestion, and low-grade fever over the past 2 days. The surgeon examines her and confirms she has an upper respiratory infection with no wound-related issues. The surgeon documents and manages only the URI.
Which modifier is appended to the E&M service to indicate it is an unrelated service during the postoperative global period?
- 25
- 58
- 24 (correct answer)
- 79
Explanation: Modifier 24 is appended to an E&M service provided by the same physician during the postoperative global period when the service is for a condition unrelated to the surgery. The upper respiratory infection is unrelated to the laparoscopic appendectomy, and the surgeon is evaluating and managing the URI within the 90-day global period of the appendectomy — the exact scenario modifier 24 was designed for. Modifier 25 is used for a significant E&M on the same day as a procedure, not during a global period. Modifier 58 identifies a staged or related procedure during the global period (not an E&M, and not unrelated). Modifier 79 identifies an unrelated procedure (not an E&M) during the global period. The key distinction: modifier 24 = unrelated E&M during global period; modifier 79 = unrelated procedure during global period.
Question 19
PROCEDURE NOTE: Patient is a 47-year-old female undergoing lysis of intraperitoneal adhesions during laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The surgeon documents that dense adhesions between the omentum and the gallbladder were lysed to gain access to the triangle of Calot and complete the primary procedure. No separate lysis of adhesions procedure was independently indicated.
How should the lysis of adhesions (44180) be reported in relation to the laparoscopic cholecystectomy (47563)?
- Report 44180 with modifier 59
- Report 44180 with modifier 51
- Report 44180 with modifier 22 added to 47563
- Do not separately report 44180; it is integral to the primary procedure (correct answer)
Explanation: Lysis of adhesions performed solely to access the primary surgical site is considered integral to and inseparable from the primary procedure; it is not separately reportable. CCI edits bundle adhesiolysis into the cholecystectomy when the adhesions are not the independent reason for the operative session and exist only as an obstacle to the primary procedure. Modifier 59 (distinct procedural service) may not be used to unbundle a service that is a standard component of another procedure performed at the same site during the same session. If the adhesions were extensive, independently medically necessary, and separately documented as a distinct service, modifier 59 might apply — but that is not the clinical scenario described. The appropriate coding approach here is to report 47563 only.
Question 20
OFFICE NOTE: Patient is a 58-year-old male presenting for a 3-month follow-up visit after a myocardial infarction that occurred 7 weeks ago. The patient is asymptomatic, cardiac rehabilitation is progressing well, and the prior MI is documented as healed and resolved. No current ischemia or active cardiac event is noted.
Which ICD-10-CM code is assigned for the prior myocardial infarction at this follow-up visit?
- I21.3
- I22.9
- I21.9
- I25.2 (correct answer)
Explanation: ICD-10-CM code I25.2 describes old myocardial infarction — the correct code when the MI occurred more than 4 weeks (28 days) prior to the current encounter and is currently healed or clinically resolved. At 7 weeks, the prior MI has passed the 28-day acute-phase threshold and is classified as old rather than acute. Code I21.3 describes an acute STEMI of unspecified site; the MI is no longer acute. Code I22.9 describes a subsequent (second) MI within 28 days of a prior MI; more than 28 days have elapsed. Code I21.9 describes an acute MI, unspecified, without specification of time from onset; the MI is beyond the acute phase. I25.2 is assigned when the patient's history of MI is clinically relevant and more than 4 weeks old.