Practice Test 24 for AP Statistics: real questions and explanations from the Varsity Tutors practice-test pool.
0%
0 / 25 answered
Question 1 of 25
A company tests two training programs for new employees and measures mean time (in minutes) to complete a standard task after training. From independent random samples, a 99% confidence interval for the difference in population means was computed as (μProgram 1−μProgram 2)∈(−8.5,−2.0). Which interpretation is correct?
Question Navigator
All questions
Question 1
A company tests two training programs for new employees and measures mean time (in minutes) to complete a standard task after training. From independent random samples, a 99% confidence interval for the difference in population means was computed as (μProgram 1−μProgram 2)∈(−8.5,−2.0). Which interpretation is correct?
We are 99% confident that Program 1 reduces mean completion time by between 2.0 and 8.5 minutes compared with Program 2.
There is a 99% probability that Program 1’s mean completion time is between 2.0 and 8.5 minutes less than Program 2’s mean.
Because the interval is negative, Program 1 has a larger mean completion time than Program 2 by 2.0 to 8.5 minutes.
We are 99% confident that the true difference μProgram 1−μProgram 2 is between −8.5 and −2.0 minutes. (correct answer)
About 99% of employees will complete the task between 2.0 and 8.5 minutes faster after Program 1 than after Program 2.
Explanation: This question involves interpreting a negative confidence interval for μ_Program1 - μ_Program2. The interval (-8.5, -2.0) being entirely negative means Program 1 has a lower mean completion time than Program 2. Choice D correctly states we're 99% confident the true difference is between -8.5 and -2.0 minutes. Choice A misinterprets the direction. Choice B incorrectly assigns probability to the parameter. Choice C gets the direction wrong. Choice E incorrectly applies the interval to individuals. Remember: negative values for μ_1 - μ_2 mean μ_1 < μ_2.
Question 2
A medical screening test is used on a population where, for a randomly selected person, the probability the test returns a false positive is modeled as P(False positive)=0.02. For one test, the sample space is {False positive,Not false positive}, and the event of interest is False positive. Which statement correctly describes the probability 0.02?
If 50 people are tested, exactly 1 false positive will occur.
The odds of a false positive are 0.02 to 1.
Over a large number of tests under similar conditions, about 2% will be false positives. (correct answer)
A false positive cannot happen because 0.02 is close to 0.
If no false positive occurs in the first 10 tests, one is guaranteed in the 11th.
Explanation: This question examines probability in a medical testing context. The sample space for each test is {False positive, Not false positive} with P(False positive) = 0.02. Option C correctly interprets this as a long-run relative frequency - over many tests under similar conditions, about 2% will be false positives. Option A incorrectly assumes exactly 1 false positive per 50 tests. Option B misunderstands odds notation (the odds are 0.02 to 0.98, or 1 to 49). Option D incorrectly suggests that low probability events cannot occur - even rare events happen. Option E falsely assumes that past results affect future independent tests. Understanding false positive rates is crucial in medical testing, as even a 2% rate can lead to many incorrect diagnoses in large-scale screening programs, highlighting why follow-up testing is often necessary.
Question 3
A bank models deposits. Let X be the amount (in dollars) deposited on Monday and Y be the amount (in dollars) deposited on Tuesday. Assume X and Y are independent, with μX=1200, σX=300, μY=900, and σY=200. Define N=X−Y, the net difference (Monday minus Tuesday). Which statement about N is correct?
μN=300 and σN=100 because 300−200=100
μN=2100 and σN=3002+2002
μN=300 and σN=500
μN=300 and σN=3002+2002 (correct answer)
μN=−300 and σN=3002+2002
Explanation: This question involves the net difference N = X - Y between Monday and Tuesday deposits. The mean is μ_N = μ_X - μ_Y = 1200 - 900 = 300 dollars. For independent variables, variances add even when subtracting: σ²_N = σ²_X + σ²_Y = 300² + 200² = 90000 + 40000 = 130000, so σ_N = √130000 = √(300² + 200²). Choice A incorrectly uses 100 for the standard deviation, confusing it with the difference of standard deviations. Choice E has the wrong sign for the mean. The fundamental principle remains: when combining independent random variables, variances always add, and the operation only affects how means combine.
Question 4
A health clinic asked 210 patients whether they received a flu shot this season and whether they reported having the flu in the past year. The table summarizes responses. Which comparison is appropriate for evaluating whether flu incidence is associated with receiving a flu shot using conditional distributions?
Had flu
Did not have flu
Flu shot
24
96
No flu shot
36
54
Compare the proportion who had the flu among those who got a flu shot to the proportion who had the flu among those who did not get a flu shot. (correct answer)
Compare the overall proportion who had the flu to the overall proportion who did not have the flu.
Compare the counts who had the flu in the flu-shot and no-flu-shot groups.
Compare the proportion who got a flu shot among those who had the flu to the proportion who got a flu shot among those who did not have the flu.
Compare the overall proportion who got a flu shot to the overall proportion who did not get a flu shot.
Explanation: The skill here is representing two categorical variables via conditional distributions to evaluate association between flu shot receipt and flu incidence. The correct comparison conditions on flu shot status and contrasts flu proportions: 24/120 = 0.20 for shot versus 36/90 = 0.40 for no shot, revealing an association. This follows the row-based conditioning in the table. Distractor choice D reverses it by conditioning on flu status and comparing shot receipt. Choice B uses overall flu proportions without conditioning, missing the association check. Mini-lesson: Conditional distributions are obtained by normalizing within rows or columns (cell/row total), allowing comparison of how one variable's proportions change across the other's categories, with discrepancies pointing to association.
Question 5
A researcher administers a short survey to randomly selected people walking through a mall until the first person agrees to participate. Each person either “agrees” or “declines,” and the researcher stops after the first agreement. Assume the probability a person agrees is approximately constant and each selection is independent. The researcher wants to model the number of people asked until the first agreement. Why is a geometric model appropriate?
Because the researcher is counting how many people agree out of a fixed sample size
Because the number of people asked is fixed and the number agreeing is random
Because each trial has two outcomes with constant probability of success, trials are independent, and the variable counts trials until the first success (correct answer)
Because the probability of agreement must decrease as more people are asked
Because the situation involves sampling without replacement from a small, finite population so probabilities change each time
Explanation: This AP Statistics item examines the geometric distribution, suitable for counting independent Bernoulli trials until the first success with unchanging p. Approaching each person is a trial with 'success' as agreement, stopping at the first success. The 'until first success' model applies since the researcher persists until the first agreement, with variable trials. A distractor like A confuses it with binomial by assuming a fixed sample. Mini-lesson: Geometric distribution gives P(X=k) = (1-p)^{k-1} p for k=1,2,...; it requires binary outcomes, independence, and constant p, as in the independent selections with approximate constant agreement probability.
Question 6
A nutrition researcher uses linear regression to predict resting heart rate (y) from daily caffeine intake in mg (x). The researcher claims the slope is 0 (no linear relationship). A 95% confidence interval for the slope is (−0.03,0.11) beats per minute per mg. Is the claim supported by the confidence interval?
Yes, because 0 is contained in the interval, so a slope of 0 is plausible. (correct answer)
No, because the interval contains positive values, so the slope must be positive.
No, because the interval contains negative values, so the slope must be negative.
Yes, and this proves caffeine has no effect on heart rate.
No, because if 0 is in the interval, it means the slope equals 0 exactly.
Explanation: This question tests understanding of confidence intervals that contain zero. The 95% confidence interval (-0.03, 0.11) includes 0, meaning a slope of 0 (no linear relationship) is a plausible value. This supports the researcher's claim that the slope equals 0. Choices B and C incorrectly conclude the slope must be positive or negative based on the interval containing those values, but when 0 is included, we cannot rule out no relationship. When evaluating whether a slope equals 0, check if 0 falls within the confidence interval; if it does, the claim is supported.
Question 7
A fitness coach wants to know whether type of workout is related to change in resting heart rate. She assigns 36 clients to one of three workout plans (cardio, strength, or mixed) and measures each client’s resting heart rate at the start and after 8 weeks; she records the change in heart rate (after − before) in beats per minute. The observational units are the clients, and the goal is to compare changes across workout types. Which classification is correct?
Explanation: This question in AP Statistics checks classification in fitness studies. Underlined 'type of workout' is explanatory for heart-rate changes. Workout type (cardio, etc.) is categorical, distinct plans. Heart-rate change in bpm is quantitative, numeric difference. Distractor A swaps types, maybe mistaking types for durations. Mini-lesson: Categorical for non-numeric groups, quantitative for calculable numbers; explanatory is the treatment-like variable, response measures the effect.
Question 8
A student collects data on 10 phones: battery capacity (mAh) and battery life (hours). The scatterplot shows a positive linear association. Which statement about correlation is correct?
If all battery capacities were converted from mAh to Ah, the correlation would change because the units changed.
The correlation would stay the same if battery capacity were converted from mAh to Ah (a positive linear rescaling). (correct answer)
The correlation would become negative if battery life were measured in minutes instead of hours.
The correlation equals the slope, so changing units must change the correlation.
A positive correlation proves that increasing capacity causes longer life for every phone model.
Explanation: AP Statistics teaches that correlation is invariant under linear transformations of variables, like unit conversions. Choice B correctly explains that converting mAh to Ah (dividing by 1000) won't change the correlation, as it's a positive linear rescaling. The positive linear association remains, unaffected by units. Distractor A wrongly suggests units alter correlation, but it's standardized. Time units like minutes vs. hours wouldn't flip the sign, countering C. Correlation indicates association strength, not causation or slope equality.
Question 9
A librarian tests whether the mean time students spend studying in the library on weeknights is 2 hours. A random sample of 20 students is selected, and conditions for a one-sample t test are met. The hypotheses are H0:μ=2 and Ha:μ=2 with α=0.05. The test is completed and the p-value is 0.051. What conclusion is appropriate?
Reject H0; since the p-value is about 0.05, there is convincing evidence the population mean study time is different from 2 hours.
Fail to reject H0; there is not convincing evidence that the population mean study time differs from 2 hours. (correct answer)
Fail to reject H0; this proves the population mean study time equals 2 hours.
Reject H0; because the sample mean was not exactly 2 hours, the population mean must not be 2 hours.
Fail to reject H0; studying in the library causes students to average 2 hours of studying per night.
Explanation: This question assesses carrying out a one-sample t-test for a population mean, particularly with p-values near α in academic settings. Since p=0.051 slightly exceeds α=0.05, we fail to reject H0: μ=2, indicating no convincing evidence that the mean study time differs from 2 hours. Choice A, a distractor, suggests rejection by rounding or misjudging the p-value, but strict inequality governs the decision. In mean hypothesis testing, failing to reject doesn't prove H0 true or imply causation, as erred in C and E. A mini-lesson: state conclusions cautiously about evidence levels for the population, avoiding assumptions from sample means alone, like in D. This approach prevents common misinterpretations in two-tailed tests.
Question 10
A company wants to estimate the proportion of all its employees who would prefer a 4-day workweek. The company surveys 200 employees chosen by a manager who selects “reliable team members who give thoughtful feedback” from across departments. Which issue most threatens the validity of using this sample to represent all employees?
Sampling bias due to a nonrandom, judgment-based selection that may exclude certain viewpoints (correct answer)
Nonresponse bias because some employees might skip the question about workweek length
Placebo effect because asking about schedules changes productivity
Measurement error because preference should be recorded in minutes, not days
Confounding because department and preference are both categorical variables
Explanation: This question tests recognition of sampling bias from non-random, judgment-based selection. The company wants to estimate preferences of ALL employees, but the manager hand-picks "reliable team members who give thoughtful feedback." This judgment-based selection creates systematic bias because the manager's criteria for selection (reliability, thoughtfulness) might correlate with work preferences - perhaps these selected employees are more invested in the company or have different work-life balance needs than average employees. This is neither simple random sampling nor any form of probability sampling; it's convenience sampling based on subjective criteria. The manager might unconsciously select employees who share similar views or exclude those seen as complainers or troublemakers. To identify this bias, look for subjective selection criteria that could correlate with the variable being measured. True random sampling gives every employee an equal chance regardless of perceived qualities.
Question 11
A store tracks the next 45 customers and records whether each customer uses a coupon. A success is “uses a coupon,” and exactly 45 customers are observed. A big coupon promotion starts halfway through, increasing coupon use for later customers. Does this meet binomial conditions?
Yes, because each customer either uses a coupon or not.
No, because the probability of success changes during the 45 trials. (correct answer)
Yes, because promotions do not affect probability.
No, because the number of trials is not fixed.
Yes, but only if the promotion starts at the end.
Explanation: This question in AP Statistics checks constant p in customer behavior. Fixed n=45, binary (uses coupon or not), but promotion changes p midway, so no. Violates constant p. Distractor A ignores change, focusing on binary. Choice C denies promotion effect, which it has. Mini-lesson: Interventions mid-process break constant p; analyze pre- and post-separately.
Question 12
An agriculture researcher wants to study the effects of fertilizer type (Type 1 vs. Type 2) and watering schedule (daily vs. every other day) on tomato yield. The researcher has 40 similar tomato plants and can randomly assign each plant to one fertilizer and one watering schedule for the entire growing season. The researcher is also interested in whether the effect of fertilizer depends on watering schedule. Which experimental design is most appropriate?
Completely randomized design with 4 treatment groups (all combinations of fertilizer and watering), randomly assign plants to groups (correct answer)
Matched-pairs design comparing Type 1 vs. Type 2 fertilizer on the same plant at different times
Randomized block design blocking by fertilizer type, then randomize watering schedule only
One-factor design: randomly assign plants to fertilizer type, and keep watering schedule the same for all plants
Observational study: let gardeners choose fertilizer and watering, then compare yields
Explanation: Selecting an experimental design in AP Statistics here involves studying multiple factors and their interactions efficiently. The completely randomized design with four treatment groups (combinations of fertilizer and watering) is appropriate, as it randomly assigns plants to all combinations, allowing assessment of main effects and interactions without blocking needs. This fits the 40 similar plants and single-assignment constraint, supporting the goal of exploring if fertilizer effects depend on watering. Distractors: B is mismatched for time-based pairing; C blocks unnecessarily; D ignores one factor; E is not experimental. Mini-lesson: For factorial experiments with independent factors, use completely randomized assignment to treatment combinations; this enables interaction analysis, but ensure units are homogeneous to avoid needing blocks.
Question 13
A university dining hall records the amounts (in grams) of pasta served in a random sample of n=58 lunch plates to model portion sizes and estimate the fraction below a target serving amount. Why is a normal model reasonable in this situation?
Because portion sizes are affected by many small factors (server differences, scoop fullness), which can produce an approximately normal distribution (correct answer)
Because using a normal model makes it impossible for the dining hall to have inconsistent serving sizes
Because the data must be normal whenever the mean portion size is near the target
Because normal models can be used only if the sample has no variability
Because if n is at least 58, the population distribution must be normal
Explanation: This question addresses normal models for food service portions. The correct answer identifies that portion sizes vary due to many small factors (server differences, scoop variations, settling), which can combine to produce approximately normal distributions. With n=58 plates sampled, the dining hall can check if portions cluster symmetrically around a typical serving size. The main distractor (E) wrongly claims that n≥58 guarantees population normality, confusing sample size thresholds with distribution requirements. Normal models are reasonable when measurements result from multiple small, additive effects, not because they eliminate inconsistency or require specific mean values.
Question 14
An engineer wants to compare the mean battery life (hours) of two brands of rechargeable batteries. The engineer randomly selects 30 batteries of Brand X and 30 batteries of Brand Y from large shipments and tests each battery once under identical conditions. The engineer wants to test whether the mean battery life differs between the two brands. Which inference procedure is most appropriate?
Two-sample t test for a difference in means (correct answer)
Matched-pairs t test for a mean difference
Two-proportion z test for a difference in proportions
One-sample t interval for a population mean
Chi-square test of homogeneity for several populations
Explanation: This scenario compares means from two independent groups (Brand X and Brand Y batteries). With 30 batteries randomly selected from each brand and tested separately, we have independent samples of quantitative data (battery life in hours). The two-sample t-test compares the population means of the two brands. Choice B is incorrect because the batteries aren't paired - each battery is tested only once. Choice C tests proportions, not means. Choice D estimates a single mean, not comparing two. Choice E tests homogeneity of categorical distributions across populations. When comparing means from two independent groups, the two-sample t-test is the appropriate choice.
Question 15
A runner recorded her heart rate (in beats per minute) at the end of each of 45 training runs over a season (population: all 45 recorded heart rates). The five-number summary is: min =118, Q1=132, median =145, Q3=156, max =170. A boxplot is made. Which feature is consistent with the summary statistics?
The interquartile range is 170−118=52 bpm.
The median is shown at 145, and the box spans from 132 to 156. (correct answer)
The left whisker spans from 132 down to 156.
The box spans from 118 to 170, and the whiskers span from 132 to 156.
The maximum 170 must be plotted as an outlier point beyond the whisker.
Explanation: This question assesses understanding of boxplot construction and feature identification. The box spans from Q₁ (132) to Q₃ (156), with the median line at 145 positioned inside this box. The whiskers extend from the box to the minimum (118) and maximum (170) values. Choice B correctly states that the median is at 145 and the box spans from 132 to 156. Common mistakes in the distractors include: calculating IQR incorrectly (it's 156-132=24, not 52), confusing whisker direction, mixing up box and whisker extents, and assuming large values must be outliers. A key principle: the five-number summary provides all necessary values for a standard boxplot without outliers.
Question 16
A school counselor models the relationship between hours of sleep the night before an exam (x) and exam score (y) for a group of students using a least-squares regression line. A scatterplot with the fitted regression line is shown. Which statement about the regression line is correct?
The regression line minimizes the sum of the absolute values of the residuals.
The regression line always passes through the point whose coordinates are (xˉ,yˉ). (correct answer)
A residual is the horizontal distance from a point to the regression line.
The regression line guarantees accurate predictions for any x-value, even far outside the observed range.
The sum of the y-values for the data points must equal 0 when the regression line is fit.
Explanation: This question tests understanding of least-squares regression properties. The least-squares regression line has a special property: it always passes through the point (x̄, ȳ), where x̄ is the mean of all x-values and ȳ is the mean of all y-values. This point is called the centroid or center of mass of the data. Option A is incorrect because least-squares minimizes the sum of squared residuals, not absolute values. Option C is wrong because residuals are vertical distances (y - ŷ), not horizontal. Option D is false because extrapolation far outside the observed range is unreliable. Option E is incorrect because it's the sum of residuals that equals zero, not the sum of y-values.
Question 17
A city measured the amount of water used per household in one month (in hundreds of gallons) for a random sample of 90 households. The summaries were: mean =62.5, median =58, SD =21.0, five-number summary (18,45,58,74,130), and IQR =29. Which interpretation is correct?
Because the IQR is 29, the difference between the maximum and minimum water use is 29 (hundreds of gallons).
Because the SD is 21.0, most households used about 21.0 (hundreds of gallons).
About 50% of households used between 45 and 74 (hundreds of gallons) in the month. (correct answer)
Because the median is 58, exactly 58 households were sampled.
Because the mean is greater than the median, the distribution must be left-skewed.
Explanation: This question assesses understanding of the interquartile range. The IQR represents the range of the middle 50% of data, from Q1 (45) to Q3 (74). This means about 50% of households used between 45 and 74 hundred gallons. Choice A incorrectly equates IQR with the full range. Choice B misinterprets SD as a typical usage amount. Choice D confuses the median value with sample size. Choice E reverses the skewness direction - when mean > median, the distribution is right-skewed, not left-skewed.
Question 18
A call center records the number of calls an operator handles in an hour. Let X be the number of calls for a randomly selected operator-hour; X is discrete. The distribution of X has mean μX=22 calls and standard deviation σX=5 calls. Which interpretation of the mean is correct?
The most common number of calls handled is 22.
An operator will handle exactly 22 calls every hour.
In the long run, the average number of calls handled per operator-hour is about 22. (correct answer)
Because σX=5, the number of calls cannot be less than 17 or more than 27.
There is a 22% chance an operator handles 22 calls in an hour.
Explanation: This question assesses mean interpretation for a discrete random variable in AP Statistics. The mean μ_X = 22 is the long-run average calls handled per operator-hour, correctly in choice C. Over numerous hours, the average would be about 22. Distractor A confuses mean with mode, suggesting 22 is most common, but mean is an average, not necessarily the most frequent. Choice D misuses SD to set hard limits of 17 to 27, whereas SD measures typical deviation. In a mini-lesson, the mean is the expected value E(X) = Σ x P(x) for discrete variables, representing the center of mass and long-term average outcome.
Question 19
A school counselor fits a least-squares regression model predicting students’ first-semester GPA (y) from the number of hours per week spent in a tutoring program (x). The counselor claims that each additional tutoring hour increases mean GPA by at least 0.05 points. A 95% confidence interval for the slope is (0.02,0.08) GPA points per hour. Is the claim supported by the confidence interval?
Yes, because the entire interval is above 0, so the increase is at least 0.05.
No, because although the slope is positive, the interval includes values less than 0.05. (correct answer)
Yes, because 0 is not in the interval, so the slope must equal 0.05.
No, because a confidence interval cannot be used to evaluate a claim about a slope.
Yes, and this proves tutoring hours cause GPA to increase by at least 0.05.
Explanation: This question tests understanding of how confidence intervals support claims about regression slopes. The 95% confidence interval (0.02, 0.08) contains all plausible values for the true slope. The counselor claims the slope is at least 0.05, meaning slope ≥ 0.05. However, the interval includes values less than 0.05 (like 0.02, 0.03, 0.04), so we cannot be confident the true slope is at least 0.05. Choice A incorrectly focuses on the interval being above 0 rather than above 0.05. When evaluating a claim that a parameter is at least some value, the entire confidence interval must be at or above that value to support the claim.
Question 20
A streaming service believes that the proportion of users who watch content on a mobile device is different from 35%. The company randomly samples 160 users and finds that 44 primarily watch on mobile (p^=0.275). Which hypotheses are appropriate for testing the company’s belief?
H0:p=0.35Ha:p=0.35 (correct answer)
H0:p=0.275Ha:p=0.275
H0:p^=0.35Ha:p^=0.35
H0:p=0.35Ha:p<0.35
H0:p=0.35Ha:p=0.35
Explanation: The skill here is crafting hypotheses for a one-proportion z-test in AP Statistics to examine if p differs from 0.35. The correct setup is H0: p = 0.35 and Ha: p ≠ 0.35, capturing the two-sided nature of 'different from,' as in choice A. A distractor is choice C, which uses ˆp incorrectly. Choice D uses a one-sided alternative, but 'different' requires checking both directions. For a mini-lesson, two-sided alternatives use ≠ for claims of difference or inaccuracy. Null is always equality, focused on p. Sample data tests the hypotheses but doesn't appear in them.
Question 21
A city council uses a random sample survey to estimate support for a proposed property-tax increase to fund road repairs. If they proceed when true support is below 50%, the measure may fail at the ballot and reduce public trust. Why is it important to consider potential error when using the sample estimate to decide whether to place the measure on the ballot?
Because the sample proportion is always exactly equal to the population proportion when the sample is random
Because the margin of error reflects possible sampling variability, and being wrong could waste money and damage credibility (correct answer)
Because any difference between the sample and population must be caused by biased questions, not chance
Because if the sample size is at least 30, the estimate is guaranteed to be correct
Because confidence intervals eliminate the possibility of an incorrect decision
Explanation: This question examines understanding of sampling variability in political polling contexts. The city council must decide whether to place a tax measure on the ballot based on a sample survey estimate. The correct answer (B) properly identifies that the margin of error reflects sampling variability - different random samples would yield different estimates of support. If the true support is below 50% but the sample estimate suggests it's above, the council might proceed with a doomed measure, wasting resources and damaging public trust. Choice A incorrectly claims sample and population proportions are always equal, while D wrongly suggests sample size alone guarantees accuracy. Statistical inference always involves uncertainty because we're using partial information (the sample) to make conclusions about the whole (all voters).
Question 22
A city planner records distance from downtown (miles) x and average rent (dollars) y for a sample of apartments, then fits a least-squares regression line to model rent from distance. Which statement about the regression line is correct?
The least-squares line is the line that makes the maximum residual as small as possible.
The least-squares line is the line that minimizes ∑(y−y^)2. (correct answer)
The least-squares line is selected so that all residuals are positive.
Predictions from the line are equally trustworthy for x within the observed distances and for x far beyond them.
Residuals should be measured as perpendicular distances so the “closest” line is found.
Explanation: This AP Statistics item checks the optimization in least-squares for rent prediction from distance. Choice B is accurate: the line minimizes ∑(y - ŷ)^2, the sum of squared vertical errors. This defines the method. Choice A distracts by focusing on minimizing the maximum residual, which is minimax regression, not least-squares. Mini-lesson: Least-squares prioritizes overall squared error reduction, not ensuring all positive residuals (Choice C) or using perpendicular distances (Choice E). Predictions are most reliable within observed x, not extrapolated far beyond (Choice D).
Question 23
A marketing firm surveyed 500 shoppers about their primary reason for choosing a particular grocery store. The reasons were categorized as Price, Convenience, Quality, and Service. Which of the following graphical displays is most appropriate for visualizing the distribution of these reasons?
A bar chart, because the variable 'reason' is categorical and this graph displays the frequency for each category. (correct answer)
A histogram, because it shows the shape of the distribution by grouping shopper responses into bins.
A dotplot, as it can represent each of the 500 individual shopper responses as a separate point.
A stem-and-leaf plot, because it is useful for showing the distribution of a variable with a small to moderate number of observations.
Explanation: A bar chart is the appropriate graphical display for a single categorical variable. The variable 'reason' has distinct categories (Price, Convenience, etc.), and a bar chart effectively shows the count or proportion in each category. Histograms, dotplots, and stem-and-leaf plots are used for quantitative data, not categorical data.
Question 24
A shipment contains many boxes of cereal. A consumer group randomly selects 20 boxes to check a promotional code inside each box. A success is finding a valid code, and the probability a box contains a valid code is 0.95 (assume independence). Which values of n and p correctly model the number of successes with a binomial distribution?
n=20,p=0.05
n=0.95,p=20
n=95,p=0.20
n=20,p=0.95 (correct answer)
n=20,p=951
Explanation: This tests binomial parameter identification for valid codes in 20 boxes. n=20 and p=0.95 fit, as in choice D. Distractors: A uses complement 0.05, B swaps, C scales wrongly, E reciprocal. Binomial needs fixed trials n, success p per trial, independence. This counts valid codes. High p suggests many successes expected.
Question 25
A fitness app sampled the number of steps taken yesterday by 85 users. The summaries were: mean = 7,900 steps, median = 8,150 steps, SD = 1,600 steps, five-number summary = (min 3,900; Q1 7,200; median 8,150; Q3 9,000; max 10,200), and IQR = 1,800 steps. Which interpretation is correct?
Because the SD is 1,600 steps, the typical user took 1,600 steps yesterday.
Because the mean is less than the median and the lower tail extends farther, the distribution is likely slightly left-skewed. (correct answer)
Because the IQR is 1,800 steps, the total spread from minimum to maximum is about 1,800 steps.
Because the median is 8,150, about 50% of users took between 8,150 and 9,000 steps.
Because the maximum is 10,200, the distribution must be symmetric.
Explanation: This question assesses interpretation of summary statistics for a slightly left-skewed distribution. When the mean (7,900) is less than the median (8,150), this suggests left skewness, where a few low values pull the mean down. The five-number summary confirms this with a longer lower tail (minimum at 3,900 is 4,250 steps below the median, while maximum at 10,200 is only 2,050 steps above). The IQR of 1,800 steps represents the spread of the middle 50% of data, not the total range. The standard deviation of 1,600 steps measures variability around the mean, not a typical step count. Understanding these distinctions helps correctly identify distribution shape from summary statistics.