Adult Literacy Advanced Quiz: Interpreting Data Displays
10 questions · exam conditions
0:00
Interpreting Data DisplaysQuestion 1 of 10

A household expects to use 1818 units of water next month. The household wants the plan with the lowest final bill after any applicable conservation rebate.

Plan data display: Clear — fixed fee: $18\$18; first 1010 units: $2\$2 each; additional units: $3\$3 each; $6\$6 rebate for using no more than 1818 units. Flow — fixed fee: $10\$10; first 88 units: $1.50\$1.50 each; additional units: $3.50\$3.50 each; no rebate. Civic — fixed fee: $25\$25; all units: $2\$2 each; $8\$8 rebate for using no more than 2020 units. Steady — fixed fee: $14\$14; first 1515 units: $2.40\$2.40 each; additional units: $4\$4 each; $5\$5 rebate for using fewer than 1818 units.

Which plan produces the lowest bill for the household's expected usage?

Clear, with a final bill of $56\$56 after the conservation rebate is applied
Flow, with a final bill of $57\$57 because it has the lowest fixed fee
Civic, with a final bill of $53\$53 after the conservation rebate is applied
Steady, with a final bill of $57\$57 after its conservation rebate is applied
← Back to quizzes

Adult Literacy Advanced Quiz

Adult Literacy Advanced Quiz: Interpreting Data Displays

Practice Interpreting Data Displays in Adult Literacy Advanced with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Interpreting Data Displays, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Adult Literacy Advanced.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

A household expects to use 1818 units of water next month. The household wants the plan with the lowest final bill after any applicable conservation rebate.

Plan data display: Clear — fixed fee: $18\$18; first 1010 units: $2\$2 each; additional units: $3\$3 each; $6\$6 rebate for using no more than 1818 units. Flow — fixed fee: $10\$10; first 88 units: $1.50\$1.50 each; additional units: $3.50\$3.50 each; no rebate. Civic — fixed fee: $25\$25; all units: $2\$2 each; $8\$8 rebate for using no more than 2020 units. Steady — fixed fee: $14\$14; first 1515 units: $2.40\$2.40 each; additional units: $4\$4 each; $5\$5 rebate for using fewer than 1818 units.

Which plan produces the lowest bill for the household's expected usage?

  1. Clear, with a final bill of $56\$56 after the conservation rebate is applied
  2. Flow, with a final bill of $57\$57 because it has the lowest fixed fee
  3. Civic, with a final bill of $53\$53 after the conservation rebate is applied (correct answer)
  4. Steady, with a final bill of $57\$57 after its conservation rebate is applied
Explanation: When a question asks you to compare multi-part billing plans, your job is to calculate each plan's total cost fully before comparing — fixed fees, tiered usage charges, and rebates all must be included. Start with Civic (C): $25\$25 fixed fee + (18×$218 \times \$2) usage = $25+$36=$61\$25 + \$36 = \$61. Since 18 units doesn't exceed 20, the $8\$8 rebate applies: $61$8=$53\$61 - \$8 = \$53. That's your benchmark. Now check the others. Clear (A): $18\$18 fixed + (10×$210 \times \$2) + (8×$38 \times \$3) = $18+$20+$24=$62\$18 + \$20 + \$24 = \$62. Using exactly 18 units qualifies for the $6\$6 rebate: $62$6=$56\$62 - \$6 = \$56. Choice A states $56\$56 correctly, but that's still higher than Civic's $53\$53, so A is wrong not because of a math error, but because it isn't the lowest. Flow (B): $10\$10 fixed + (8×$1.508 \times \$1.50) + (10×$3.5010 \times \$3.50) = $10+$12+$35=$57\$10 + \$12 + \$35 = \$57. No rebate available. Choice B tries to mislead you into stopping at the fixed fee — never evaluate plans by one component alone. Steady (D): $14\$14 fixed + (15×$2.4015 \times \$2.40) + (3×$43 \times \$4) = $14+$36+$12=$62\$14 + \$36 + \$12 = \$62. The rebate requires fewer than 18 units, and the household uses exactly 18, so no rebate applies: $62\$62, not $57\$57. Choice D misreads the rebate condition — a classic trap. The correct answer is C. Always read rebate conditions carefully (≤ vs. <) and calculate every plan completely before comparing.

Question 2

A manufacturer will hire a vendor for an advanced safety course. The vendor must have completed training for at least 85%85\% of its assigned advanced-level participants and must have at least 4242 advanced-level completions. If several vendors qualify, the manufacturer will select the one with the highest satisfaction score; a cost comparison will be used only to break a tie.

Vendor data display: Apex — assigned: 4848; completed: 4242; satisfaction: 4.14.1; cost: $7,200\$7{,}200. Bridge — assigned: 5555; completed: 4545; satisfaction: 4.74.7; cost: $6,800\$6{,}800. Cedar — assigned: 4646; completed: 4040; satisfaction: 4.44.4; cost: $7,600\$7{,}600. Delta — assigned: 5050; completed: 4343; satisfaction: 4.44.4; cost: $7,400\$7{,}400.

Which vendor should the manufacturer hire?

  1. Apex, because its completion percentage exceeds the threshold and its total completions meet the minimum
  2. Bridge, because it has the highest satisfaction score and the lowest quoted training cost
  3. Cedar, because its completion percentage exceeds the threshold and its satisfaction score is relatively high
  4. Delta, because it satisfies both completion requirements and has the highest score among qualifying vendors (correct answer)
Explanation: When a question gives you a multi-step selection process, work through each requirement in order before considering tiebreakers. Here, vendors must clear two hurdles — an 85%85\% completion rate AND at least 4242 completions — before satisfaction scores even matter. Check each vendor's completion percentage: Apex: 42÷4887.5%42 \div 48 \approx 87.5\% ✓; Bridge: 45÷5581.8%45 \div 55 \approx 81.8\% ✗; Cedar: 40÷4687%40 \div 46 \approx 87\% ✓; Delta: 43÷50=86%43 \div 50 = 86\% ✓. Bridge fails the percentage threshold immediately. Now check the minimum completions: Apex has 42 ✓, Cedar has 40 ✗, Delta has 43 ✓. Cedar is eliminated because 40 falls short of the required 42. That leaves only Apex and Delta qualifying. Between them, Delta's satisfaction score of 4.44.4 beats Apex's 4.14.1, so Delta is the correct choice (D). Choice A is tempting because Apex does satisfy both requirements, but it ignores that Delta also qualifies and has a higher satisfaction score — the passage says the highest satisfaction score wins among qualifiers. Choice B fails because Bridge never cleared the 81.8%81.8\% completion rate, and cost is only a tiebreaker anyway, not a primary criterion. Choice C falls apart because Cedar's 40 completions don't meet the 42-completion minimum, regardless of its decent satisfaction score. The key strategy here: eliminate before you rank. On multi-criteria questions, disqualify candidates who fail any hard requirement before comparing the remaining ones on preference criteria like satisfaction or cost.

Question 3

A resident wants to attend a weekday workshop on applying for housing assistance. She is available only for sessions beginning at or after 5:30 p.m. and needs Spanish interpretation. Because she travels by bus, the last bus from the venue must depart at least 1515 minutes after the workshop ends.

Workshop data display: Monday, East Center — 6:00–8:00 p.m.; Spanish interpretation: available; last bus: 8:05 p.m. Tuesday, Central Hall — 5:30–7:00 p.m.; Spanish interpretation: available; last bus: 7:30 p.m. Thursday, North Annex — 6:30–8:00 p.m.; Spanish interpretation: unavailable; last bus: 9:00 p.m. Saturday, River Library — 10:00 a.m.–noon; Spanish interpretation: available; last bus: 1:00 p.m.

Which workshop meets all of the resident's stated needs?

  1. The Tuesday workshop, because its time, interpretation service, and return transportation all qualify (correct answer)
  2. The Monday workshop, because it is on a weekday, begins after work, and provides Spanish interpretation
  3. The Thursday workshop, because it begins late enough and provides the widest transportation margin
  4. The Saturday workshop, because it provides interpretation and allows ample time to catch the bus
Explanation: Questions like this test your ability to apply multiple simultaneous conditions to a data set — a critical real-world skill. Before selecting any answer, list every requirement: weekday only, start time at or after 5:30 p.m., Spanish interpretation available, and the last bus must depart at least 15 minutes after the workshop ends. Work through each option systematically. The Tuesday workshop (Choice A) starts at 5:30 p.m. ✓, is a weekday ✓, offers Spanish interpretation ✓, and ends at 7:00 p.m. The last bus departs at 7:30 p.m., giving exactly 3030 minutes of buffer — well above the required 1515 minutes ✓. Every condition is satisfied, making A correct. Choice B fails on transportation. The Monday workshop ends at 8:00 p.m., but the last bus departs at 8:05 p.m. — only 55 minutes after the session ends, which falls short of the required 1515-minute minimum. The workshop sounds appealing, but this detail disqualifies it. Choice C fails on interpretation. The Thursday workshop has no Spanish interpretation available, which immediately eliminates it regardless of how convenient the bus schedule is. Choice D fails on the weekday requirement. Saturday is not a weekday, so this option is disqualified from the start — the resident's availability constraint rules it out entirely. The key strategy here is to check every condition before choosing, not just the ones featured in the answer choice's explanation. Wrong answers are often written to highlight the conditions they do meet while quietly omitting the one they fail. When you see multi-condition filtering questions, make a quick checklist and run each option all the way through it.

Question 4

A factory tested four revised production processes. A process may be adopted only if pilot output per paid hour is at least 8%8\% above the baseline rate, the pilot defect rate does not exceed the baseline defect rate, and at least 500500 units were produced during the pilot. Pilot output per hour equals units produced divided by paid hours.

Pilot data display: Process A — baseline output: 1010 units per hour; baseline defect rate: 2%2\%; pilot: 540540 units in 5050 hours with 1111 defects. Process B — baseline output: 1212 units per hour; baseline defect rate: 3%3\%; pilot: 600600 units in 4646 hours with 1818 defects. Process C — baseline output: 88 units per hour; baseline defect rate: 2.5%2.5\%; pilot: 480480 units in 5555 hours with 1010 defects. Process D — baseline output: 1515 units per hour; baseline defect rate: 1.5%1.5\%; pilot: 620620 units in 3939 hours with 88 defects.

Which revised process satisfies all three adoption requirements?

  1. Process A, because its pilot output rate meets the eight-percent productivity gain and the pilot size is sufficient
  2. Process B, because its productivity gain, defect rate, and pilot size all satisfy the adoption standards (correct answer)
  3. Process C, because its output per hour exceeds the eight-percent threshold and its defect rate is below baseline
  4. Process D, because it records the highest pilot output rate and its defect count is lower than baseline
Explanation: When a question gives you multiple criteria that must all be met, your job is to check every condition for every option — not stop at the first one that looks promising. Here, three gates must be cleared: pilot output per hour must be at least 8% above baseline, the pilot defect rate must not exceed the baseline defect rate, and at least 500 units must have been produced. Process B clears all three. Its baseline is 1212 units/hour, so the 8% threshold is 12×1.08=12.9612 \times 1.08 = 12.96 units/hour. The pilot rate is 600÷4613.04600 \div 46 \approx 13.04 units/hour — just above the threshold. Its pilot defect rate is 18÷600=3%18 \div 600 = 3\%, which matches (and does not exceed) the baseline defect rate of 3%3\%. And 600600 units clears the 500-unit minimum. All three conditions satisfied — B is the answer. Choice A fails because Process A's pilot rate is 540÷50=10.8540 \div 50 = 10.8 units/hour, but the 8% threshold requires 10×1.08=10.810 \times 1.08 = 10.8 — that's exactly at the minimum, which technically qualifies — however, the defect rate is 11÷5402.04%11 \div 540 \approx 2.04\%, which exceeds the 2%2\% baseline. It fails the defect condition. Choice C fails immediately on pilot size: only 480 units were produced, falling short of the 500-unit requirement. Choice D's defect rate is 8÷6201.29%8 \div 620 \approx 1.29\%, which is below baseline — good. But its pilot rate is 620÷3915.9620 \div 39 \approx 15.9 units/hour against a threshold of 15×1.08=16.215 \times 1.08 = 16.2. It falls short on productivity. Your strategy: in multi-criteria questions, build a quick checklist and verify every condition for every process. Eliminate options the moment one criterion fails — don't let a strong result in one area distract you from a failure in another.

Question 5

A regional agency reimburses employees for public transit to meetings. For an important meeting beginning at 9:00 a.m., an employee must arrive by 8:50 a.m. and use no more than one transfer. Agency guidance says to choose the least expensive route among those with an on-time rate of at least 90%90\%.

Transit data display: Route A — arrival: 8:42 a.m.; fare: $2.75\$2.75; transfers: 11; on-time rate: 88%88\%. Route B — arrival: 8:48 a.m.; fare: $3.25\$3.25; transfers: 00; on-time rate: 92%92\%. Route C — arrival: 8:35 a.m.; fare: $4.00\$4.00; transfers: 11; on-time rate: 96%96\%. Route D — arrival: 8:55 a.m.; fare: $2.50\$2.50; transfers: 00; on-time rate: 95%95\%.

Which route should the employee select under the agency's guidance?

  1. Route A, because it arrives early and has the lowest fare among the timely routes
  2. Route B, because it meets every condition and costs less than the other qualifying route (correct answer)
  3. Route C, because its on-time rate is the highest among the routes that arrive early
  4. Route D, because it meets the reliability standard and has the lowest listed fare
Explanation: When a question gives you a set of rules and asks you to apply them, work through each condition systematically before comparing costs. Here, the agency requires three things: arrive by 8:50 a.m., use no more than one transfer, and have an on-time rate of at least 90%90\%. Only routes that pass all three filters are eligible — then you pick the cheapest one. Route B arrives at 8:48 a.m. (on time), uses zero transfers (within the limit), and has a 92%92\% on-time rate (above the 90%90\% threshold). It clears every hurdle. Route C also qualifies — it arrives at 8:35 a.m., uses one transfer, and has a 96%96\% on-time rate — but its fare is $4.00\$4.00 versus Route B's $3.25\$3.25. Since the guidance says to choose the least expensive qualifying route, Route B is the correct answer. Route A fails the reliability filter: its 88%88\% on-time rate falls below the required 90%90\%, so it's ineligible regardless of its lower fare. Choice A ignores this disqualifying flaw. Route C does qualify, but choosing it over Route B because of the highest on-time rate misreads the rule — reliability only needs to meet the minimum threshold, not be maximized. Choice C applies the wrong priority. Route D arrives at 8:55 a.m., which is after the 8:50 a.m. cutoff, so it fails the arrival condition entirely despite its attractive $2.50\$2.50 fare. Choice D overlooks this timing violation. The broader strategy: on multi-condition filtering questions, eliminate disqualified options first, then rank the survivors by the stated preference. Doing it in the wrong order is the most common trap.

Question 6

A health clinic is adding staff to one appointment period. To qualify, a period must have a median wait of no more than 2525 minutes and a no-show rate below 12%12\%. Among qualifying periods, the clinic will choose the one with the greatest number of currently available appointment slots.

Clinic data display: Morning — median wait: 2424 minutes; no-show rate: 10%10\%; available slots: 1818. Midday — median wait: 2222 minutes; no-show rate: 14%14\%; available slots: 2525. Afternoon — median wait: 2727 minutes; no-show rate: 8%8\%; available slots: 2020. Evening — median wait: 2525 minutes; no-show rate: 11%11\%; available slots: 1616.

To which appointment period should the clinic assign the additional staff?

  1. Morning, because it qualifies under both limits and offers more slots than the other qualifying period (correct answer)
  2. Midday, because it has the shortest median wait and the largest number of available slots
  3. Afternoon, because it has the lowest no-show rate and more available slots than evening
  4. Evening, because its wait and no-show figures both satisfy the clinic's stated limits
Explanation: When a question gives you multiple criteria for qualification, your first job is to act like a filter: apply every rule in order and eliminate anything that fails before moving on to the tiebreaker. Here, a period must satisfy both conditions — median wait 25\leq 25 minutes and no-show rate <12%< 12\% — before available slots even matter. Walk through each period: Morning clears both (2424 min, 10%10\%). Midday fails immediately because its no-show rate is 14%14\%, which exceeds 12%12\%. Afternoon fails because its median wait is 2727 minutes, above the 2525-minute ceiling. Evening qualifies (2525 min, 11%11\%), but it has only 1616 available slots versus Morning's 1818. Among the two qualifying periods, Morning wins on the tiebreaker. Answer A is correct. Answer B is tempting because Midday has the shortest wait and most slots, but it never qualified — a 14%14\% no-show rate disqualifies it outright, and "most slots" is irrelevant for a period that doesn't meet the rules. Answer C makes a similar error: Afternoon has an impressive no-show rate, but a 2727-minute median wait violates the first condition, so it's out of contention regardless of its slot count. Answer D is partially right — Evening does satisfy both limits — but it stops there without comparing available slots to Morning's, missing the final selection step. The key strategy: multi-criteria problems require you to apply all filters before comparing the remaining options. Don't let a strong performance in one category distract you from a disqualifying failure in another.

Question 7

A county will prioritize one facility for public recognition if it has reduced annual energy use by at least 20%20\% from its baseline and has documented savings of more than $10,000\$10{,}000. Reductions must be calculated relative to the baseline, not as a percentage of current use.

Energy data display, with usage measured in megawatt-hours: Administration — baseline: 500500; current: 390390; savings: $9,000\$9{,}000. Depot — baseline: 800800; current: 650650; savings: $14,000\$14{,}000. Library — baseline: 300300; current: 235235; savings: $11,000\$11{,}000. Community Center — baseline: 450450; current: 360360; savings: $10,000\$10{,}000.

Which facility meets both recognition requirements?

  1. Administration, because its energy reduction exceeds twenty percent of its baseline consumption
  2. Depot, because it achieves the greatest dollar savings and the largest numerical reduction
  3. Library, because its percentage reduction exceeds twenty percent and its dollar savings exceed ten thousand dollars (correct answer)
  4. Community Center, because it achieves a twenty-percent reduction and its savings are nearly at the required threshold
Explanation: When a question gives you two conditions that must both be satisfied, your job is to test each facility against each requirement separately — and only select a choice where both boxes are checked. The two requirements here are: (1) energy reduction ≥ 20% of baseline, and (2) dollar savings > $10,000. For the percentage, the passage reminds you to divide by the baseline, not current use. The Library's reduction is $300235=65300 - 235 = 65 MWh.Dividingbyitsbaseline:MWh. Dividing by its baseline: 6530021.7%\frac{65}{300} \approx 21.7\% $, which clears the 20% threshold. Its documented savings are $11,000, which exceeds $10,000. Both conditions are met — C is correct. Now let's see why the others fall short. A is tempting because Administration reduced usage by $\frac{110}{500} = 22\%$$, which does exceed 20%. However, its savings are only 9,000 — below the $10,000 threshold. One condition passes; the other fails. B focuses on the Depot's impressive $14,000 in savings and its 150 MWh numerical drop, but 150800=18.75%\frac{150}{800} = 18.75\% — just under the required 20%. The question is about meeting criteria, not ranking facilities by performance. Being the "biggest" in one category doesn't override a failed requirement. D is a trap built on rounding. The Community Center's reduction is 90450=20%\frac{90}{450} = 20\% exactly, which technically meets threshold one. But its savings are exactly $10,000 — and the rule requires savings of more than $10,000. Equal is not greater. Your strategy: when a question lists multiple criteria, treat it like a checklist. Eliminate any choice that fails even one condition, regardless of how strong it looks on the others.

Question 8

An organization will recognize the branch with the highest combined favorable-response rate, but only among branches where at least 75%75\% of all invited employees and clients responded. The combined favorable-response rate must be calculated from total favorable responses divided by total responses, not by averaging the two group percentages.

Survey data display: East — employees: 6060 responses from 8080 invited, 4545 favorable; clients: 2020 responses from 4040 invited, 1818 favorable. West — employees: 5050 responses from 7070 invited, 4040 favorable; clients: 3434 responses from 4040 invited, 2424 favorable. North — employees: 7070 responses from 9090 invited, 4949 favorable; clients: 1818 responses from 3030 invited, 1717 favorable. South — employees: 4545 responses from 6060 invited, 3232 favorable; clients: 3030 responses from 4040 invited, 2323 favorable.

Which branch should receive the recognition?

  1. East, because its combined favorable-response rate is the highest among all four branches
  2. West, because it meets the participation threshold and earns the highest favorable rate among qualifying branches (correct answer)
  3. North, because its strong client favorable responses push its combined rate above the other branches
  4. South, because it reaches exactly the participation minimum and its favorable responses outnumber unfavorable ones
Explanation: Questions like this one test your ability to apply multi-step filtering rules before performing calculations — a critical skill on advanced literacy exams. Always handle the eligibility condition first, then calculate rates only for qualifying branches. The participation threshold requires that at least 75%75\% of all invited (employees + clients combined) must have responded. Check each branch:
  • East: 8080 responses from 120120 invited = 66.7%66.7\%
  • West: 8484 responses from 110110 invited = 76.4%76.4\%
  • North: 8888 responses from 120120 invited = 73.3%73.3\%
  • South: 7575 responses from 100100 invited = 75.0%75.0\%
Only West and South qualify. Now calculate their combined favorable-response rates (total favorable ÷ total responses):
  • West: 40+2450+34=648476.2%\frac{40+24}{50+34} = \frac{64}{84} \approx 76.2\%
  • South: 32+2345+30=557573.3%\frac{32+23}{45+30} = \frac{55}{75} \approx 73.3\%
West has the higher rate among qualifying branches, making B the correct answer. Choice A fails because East doesn't meet the participation threshold — its rate is irrelevant regardless of how favorable it looks. Choice C is wrong because North only achieves 73.3%73.3\% participation, falling short of the 75%75\% minimum. Choice D is a trap: South does qualify, but its favorable rate is lower than West's, so "meeting the minimum" alone doesn't earn recognition. Strategy tip: When a question has eligibility rules and ranking rules, always eliminate ineligible options first — calculating rates for disqualified branches wastes time and invites errors.

Question 9

A city department may transfer money from any program forecast to underspend its annual budget by more than 10%10\%. However, a program is protected from transfers if it has already achieved at least 90%90\% of its annual service target. The year-end forecast equals spending through the third quarter plus forecast fourth-quarter spending.

Program data display, with dollar amounts in thousands: Outreach — budget: 120120; spent through third quarter: 7878; fourth-quarter forecast: 2424; target achieved: 88%88\%. Repairs — budget: 200200; spent through third quarter: 150150; fourth-quarter forecast: 2525; target achieved: 92%92\%. Training — budget: 9090; spent through third quarter: 6161; fourth-quarter forecast: 1818; target achieved: 87%87\%. Technology — budget: 150150; spent through third quarter: 118118; fourth-quarter forecast: 2020; target achieved: 84%84\%.

From which programs may the department transfer money under the policy?

  1. Outreach and Repairs, because both are forecast to leave more than one-tenth of their budgets unspent
  2. Repairs and Training, because both have substantial forecast balances at the end of the year
  3. Outreach and Training, because both exceed the underspending threshold and neither is protected (correct answer)
  4. Training and Technology, because neither program has reached ninety percent of its service target
Explanation: When a question gives you a multi-part policy, slow down and apply every condition before marking a program eligible. Here, two separate tests must both be satisfied: (1) the year-end forecast must fall more than 10% below budget, and (2) the program must not have reached 90% of its service target. Start by calculating each program's forecast spending (Q3 spending + Q4 forecast) and comparing it to budget. Outreach: 78+24=10278 + 24 = 102, leaving 120102=18120 - 102 = 18 unspent, which is 18/120=15%18/120 = 15\% — exceeds the 10% threshold. Training: 61+18=7961 + 18 = 79, leaving 9079=1190 - 79 = 11 unspent, which is 11/9012.2%11/90 \approx 12.2\% — also exceeds the threshold. Repairs: 150+25=175150 + 25 = 175, leaving 200175=25200 - 175 = 25 unspent, or 12.5%12.5\% — clears the threshold too. Technology: 118+20=138118 + 20 = 138, leaving 150138=12150 - 138 = 12 unspent, or 8%8\% — does not meet the threshold. Now apply the protection rule. Repairs is protected because it has hit 92%92\% of its target (≥ 90%). Outreach (88%88\%) and Training (87%87\%) are not protected. That leaves Outreach and Training as the only eligible programs — confirming answer C. Answer A fails because Repairs qualifies financially but is protected by its service achievement. Answer B vaguely names Repairs and Training without properly applying the protection rule to Repairs. Answer D correctly identifies programs below 90% target but ignores Technology's underspending shortfall (only 8%). Strategy tip: With policy questions, build a checklist from the passage and verify every condition for every option — one missed rule is all it takes to fall for a distractor.

Question 10

A warehouse reorders an item when projected available inventory is less than the amount expected to be used during the supplier's lead time plus one additional week of safety stock. Projected available inventory equals current stock plus confirmed incoming stock.

Inventory data display: Alpha — current: 9090; incoming: 2020; weekly use: 2525; lead time: 33 weeks. Beta — current: 6060; incoming: 1010; weekly use: 1818; lead time: 33 weeks. Gamma — current: 100100; incoming: 00; weekly use: 2222; lead time: 44 weeks. Delta — current: 4545; incoming: 3030; weekly use: 2020; lead time: 22 weeks.

Which items should the warehouse reorder?

  1. Alpha and Beta, because their projected inventories are relatively low for three-week lead times
  2. Alpha and Delta, because their weekly usage is high compared with their current stock levels
  3. Gamma and Delta, because their current inventories alone do not provide the required protection
  4. Beta and Gamma, because each falls below lead-time demand plus one week of safety stock (correct answer)
Explanation: When a question gives you a reorder rule, your job is to apply it mechanically to every item — not to eyeball the numbers or rely on intuition. The rule here has two parts: calculate each item's reorder point (lead-time weeks × weekly use + one safety-stock week × weekly use), then compare it to projected available inventory (current + incoming). Working through each item:
  • Alpha: Reorder point = (3+1)×25=100(3+1) \times 25 = 100. Projected inventory = 90+20=11090 + 20 = 110. No reorder needed.
  • Beta: Reorder point = (3+1)×18=72(3+1) \times 18 = 72. Projected inventory = 60+10=7060 + 10 = 70. Below threshold — reorder.
  • Gamma: Reorder point = (4+1)×22=110(4+1) \times 22 = 110. Projected inventory = 100+0=100100 + 0 = 100. Below threshold — reorder.
  • Delta: Reorder point = (2+1)×20=60(2+1) \times 20 = 60. Projected inventory = 45+30=7545 + 30 = 75. No reorder needed.
That confirms D — Beta and Gamma both fall below lead-time demand plus one safety-stock week. Choice A is wrong because Alpha's projected inventory (110) actually meets its threshold exactly. Choice B fails because the rule never compares usage to current stock alone — it uses projected inventory against the full reorder point. Choice C sounds reasonable but is wrong because it ignores incoming stock; Delta's incoming shipment of 30 pushes its projected inventory safely above its threshold. Your strategy: whenever a problem gives you an explicit formula, write it out and calculate every case. Traps like A, B, and C are designed to tempt you into shortcuts.