Clinical Competencies - CCRN
Card 0 of 170
A patient in the ICU presents with acute pancreatitis. An examination reveals that the patient almost never consumes alcohol. The most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the nonalcoholic patient is:
A patient in the ICU presents with acute pancreatitis. An examination reveals that the patient almost never consumes alcohol. The most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the nonalcoholic patient is:
Pancreatitis is an inflammatory disease in which pancreatic enzymes, which normally function to digest food in the small intestines, become activated in the pancreas and initiate autodigestion. The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are alcoholism and biliary disease (gallstones). Other less common causes of acute pancreatitis include: codeine reaction, cystic fibrosis, and use of steroid medications.
Pancreatitis is an inflammatory disease in which pancreatic enzymes, which normally function to digest food in the small intestines, become activated in the pancreas and initiate autodigestion. The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are alcoholism and biliary disease (gallstones). Other less common causes of acute pancreatitis include: codeine reaction, cystic fibrosis, and use of steroid medications.
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Which of the following is NOT a measurement on an arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis?
Which of the following is NOT a measurement on an arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis?
Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis includes five measurements: pH, arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2), bicarbonate ion (HCO3-), arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2), and base excess (BE). Fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) is not apart of an ABG analysis.
Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis includes five measurements: pH, arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2), bicarbonate ion (HCO3-), arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2), and base excess (BE). Fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) is not apart of an ABG analysis.
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The process of ventilation has four phases. Which of the following correctly describes the events of Phase III?
The process of ventilation has four phases. Which of the following correctly describes the events of Phase III?
The four phases of ventilation are as follows: Phase I is the movement of ambient air in and out of the respiratory tract; Phase II is the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli; Phase III entails the delivery of oxygen to erythrocytes, and the removal of carbon dioxide from the erythrocytes and the bloodstream; Phase IV is the regulation of ventilation.
The four phases of ventilation are as follows: Phase I is the movement of ambient air in and out of the respiratory tract; Phase II is the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli; Phase III entails the delivery of oxygen to erythrocytes, and the removal of carbon dioxide from the erythrocytes and the bloodstream; Phase IV is the regulation of ventilation.
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Sepsis is defined as a systemic response to an infection that includes the presence of two or more of a number of clinical conditions. Which of the following is NOT a clinical condition for sepsis?
Sepsis is defined as a systemic response to an infection that includes the presence of two or more of a number of clinical conditions. Which of the following is NOT a clinical condition for sepsis?
Sepsis is defined as a systemic response to an infection that includes the presence of two or more of the following conditions: a temperature greater that 38°C or a temperature less than 36°C; a heart rate greater than 90 beats per minute; a respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute; a WBC greater than 12,000 cells/mm3; or a PaCO2 less than 32 mmHG. If sepsis occurs along with hypoperfusion and organ dysfunction, it becomes classified as severe sepsis. If sepsis occurs with hypotension and insufficient tissue perfusion that does not respond to fluid resuscitation, it becomes classified as septic shock.
Sepsis is defined as a systemic response to an infection that includes the presence of two or more of the following conditions: a temperature greater that 38°C or a temperature less than 36°C; a heart rate greater than 90 beats per minute; a respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute; a WBC greater than 12,000 cells/mm3; or a PaCO2 less than 32 mmHG. If sepsis occurs along with hypoperfusion and organ dysfunction, it becomes classified as severe sepsis. If sepsis occurs with hypotension and insufficient tissue perfusion that does not respond to fluid resuscitation, it becomes classified as septic shock.
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A patient with renal dysfunction presents with hypernatremia. This is most likely the result of:
A patient with renal dysfunction presents with hypernatremia. This is most likely the result of:
Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized via elevated sodium levels in the blood. This condition results in water retention and the development of excess extracellular fluid volume. In patient's with normal renal function, the condition is typically caused by a lack of ADH secretion via the posterior pituitary. In patients with renal dysfunction, the condition is typically the result of an inability of the renal tubules to respond to ADH secretion. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system functions to increase sodium reabsorption via the renal tubules, and thus insufficient secretion of either renin or aldosterone would work to produce the opposite effect of hypernatremia.
Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized via elevated sodium levels in the blood. This condition results in water retention and the development of excess extracellular fluid volume. In patient's with normal renal function, the condition is typically caused by a lack of ADH secretion via the posterior pituitary. In patients with renal dysfunction, the condition is typically the result of an inability of the renal tubules to respond to ADH secretion. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system functions to increase sodium reabsorption via the renal tubules, and thus insufficient secretion of either renin or aldosterone would work to produce the opposite effect of hypernatremia.
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A patient who has been exposed to tularemia is likely to be treated with:
A patient who has been exposed to tularemia is likely to be treated with:
Tularemia is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis. The bacteria is generally found in rodents and rabbits, and the most common vectors are ticks and deer flies. A patient who has been exposed to tularemia is likely to be treated with antibiotics (streptomycin, gentamycin, tetracyclines, or fluoroquinolones).
Tularemia is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis. The bacteria is generally found in rodents and rabbits, and the most common vectors are ticks and deer flies. A patient who has been exposed to tularemia is likely to be treated with antibiotics (streptomycin, gentamycin, tetracyclines, or fluoroquinolones).
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Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the GI tract that assists with digestion?
Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the GI tract that assists with digestion?
The major organs that make up the GI tract are: the mouth, the esophagus, the stomach, the small intestine, the large intestine, the rectum, and the anus. The accessory organs of digestion include the liver, the gallbladder, and the pancreas. The spleen plays a major role in filtering blood, working to remove old red blood cells.
The major organs that make up the GI tract are: the mouth, the esophagus, the stomach, the small intestine, the large intestine, the rectum, and the anus. The accessory organs of digestion include the liver, the gallbladder, and the pancreas. The spleen plays a major role in filtering blood, working to remove old red blood cells.
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Atrial septal defects allow blood to be shunted between the left and right atria. The most common atrial septal defect is:
Atrial septal defects allow blood to be shunted between the left and right atria. The most common atrial septal defect is:
There are typically three types of atrial septal defects: ostium secundum, sinus venosus, and ostium primum. Of the three, ostium secundum, which occurs around the region of the foramen ovale, is the most common.
There are typically three types of atrial septal defects: ostium secundum, sinus venosus, and ostium primum. Of the three, ostium secundum, which occurs around the region of the foramen ovale, is the most common.
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Direct-acting vasodilators that are smooth muscle relaxants include which of the following medications?
I. Nitroglycerin
II. Furosemide
III. Nitroprusside
Direct-acting vasodilators that are smooth muscle relaxants include which of the following medications?
I. Nitroglycerin
II. Furosemide
III. Nitroprusside
Smooth muscle relaxants that are direct-acting vasodilators include nitroprusside and nitroglycerin. These medications, which are used in the treatment of heart failure, work to reduce cardiac filling pressures and dilate coronary arteries. Furosemide is a loop diuretic.
Smooth muscle relaxants that are direct-acting vasodilators include nitroprusside and nitroglycerin. These medications, which are used in the treatment of heart failure, work to reduce cardiac filling pressures and dilate coronary arteries. Furosemide is a loop diuretic.
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The two specialized cell types contained within the sinoatrial (SA) node:
The two specialized cell types contained within the sinoatrial (SA) node:
The sinoatrial (SA) node contains two specialized cell types: border zone cells and specialized pacemaker cells. Cardiomyocytes are heart muscle cells, and chondrocytes are cartilage producing cells.
The sinoatrial (SA) node contains two specialized cell types: border zone cells and specialized pacemaker cells. Cardiomyocytes are heart muscle cells, and chondrocytes are cartilage producing cells.
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A patient is suffering from dipsogenic diabetes insipidus. Which of the following correctly characterizes this condition?
A patient is suffering from dipsogenic diabetes insipidus. Which of the following correctly characterizes this condition?
Diabetes insipidus is a condition in which an individual has an insensitivity to or a deficiency of vasopressin (ADH). This is a hormone released by the posterior pituitary that is responsible for increasing water reabsorption in the kidney. There are three types of diabetes insipidus: neurogenic DI, nephrogenic DI, and dipsogenic DI. Neurogenic DI is characterized by damage to the posterior pituitary, which results in a deficiency of vasopressin. Nephrogenic DI is characterized by the kidneys inadequately responding to vasopressin. Dipsogenic DI is characterized by the oral ingestion of excessive amount of water, which results in a suppression of vasopressin release and ultimately leads to polyuria. Diabetes mellitus type 1 results from insufficient insulin production by pancreatic beta-cells.
Diabetes insipidus is a condition in which an individual has an insensitivity to or a deficiency of vasopressin (ADH). This is a hormone released by the posterior pituitary that is responsible for increasing water reabsorption in the kidney. There are three types of diabetes insipidus: neurogenic DI, nephrogenic DI, and dipsogenic DI. Neurogenic DI is characterized by damage to the posterior pituitary, which results in a deficiency of vasopressin. Nephrogenic DI is characterized by the kidneys inadequately responding to vasopressin. Dipsogenic DI is characterized by the oral ingestion of excessive amount of water, which results in a suppression of vasopressin release and ultimately leads to polyuria. Diabetes mellitus type 1 results from insufficient insulin production by pancreatic beta-cells.
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The critical care nurse knows that metabolic acidosis is defined by which of the following parameters?
The critical care nurse knows that metabolic acidosis is defined by which of the following parameters?
Metabolic acidosis is one of the four main acid-base disorders. The disorder is characterized by a bloodstream pH < 7.35 and a \[HCO3-\] < 22 mEq/L. The decrease in bicarbonate ion can be due to an endocrine, gastrointestinal, or renal disorder, as well as a nutritional deficiency.
Metabolic acidosis is one of the four main acid-base disorders. The disorder is characterized by a bloodstream pH < 7.35 and a \[HCO3-\] < 22 mEq/L. The decrease in bicarbonate ion can be due to an endocrine, gastrointestinal, or renal disorder, as well as a nutritional deficiency.
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Which of the following is Not one of the four primary acid-base disorders?
Which of the following is Not one of the four primary acid-base disorders?
The four main acid-base disorders are: respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, and metabolic alkalosis. Renal tubular acidosis can lead to metabolic acidosis, but it is not one of the primary classifications of acid-base disorders.
The four main acid-base disorders are: respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, and metabolic alkalosis. Renal tubular acidosis can lead to metabolic acidosis, but it is not one of the primary classifications of acid-base disorders.
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Which of the following white blood cells release histamine and attract IgE antibodies to their surface?
I. Basophils
II. Neutrophils
III. Mast cells
Which of the following white blood cells release histamine and attract IgE antibodies to their surface?
I. Basophils
II. Neutrophils
III. Mast cells
Basophils and Mast cells both stimulate an inflammatory response via the release of histamine and attract IgE antibodies to their surface. The major difference between basophils and Mast cells is that basophils survive only a few days circulating in the blood, while Mast cells can survive for weeks while located in bodily tissues. Neutrophils are phagocytic cells that do release cytokines and other granules, but do not release histamine or attract IgE to their surface.
Basophils and Mast cells both stimulate an inflammatory response via the release of histamine and attract IgE antibodies to their surface. The major difference between basophils and Mast cells is that basophils survive only a few days circulating in the blood, while Mast cells can survive for weeks while located in bodily tissues. Neutrophils are phagocytic cells that do release cytokines and other granules, but do not release histamine or attract IgE to their surface.
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A patient is suffering from neurogenic diabetes insipidus. Which of the following correctly characterizes this condition?
A patient is suffering from neurogenic diabetes insipidus. Which of the following correctly characterizes this condition?
Diabetes insipidus is a condition in which an individual has an insensitivity to or a deficiency of vasopressin (ADH). This is a hormone released by the posterior pituitary that is responsible for increasing water reabsorption in the kidney. There are three types of diabetes insipidus: neurogenic DI, nephrogenic DI, and dipsogenic DI. Neurogenic DI is characterized by damage to the posterior pituitary, which results in a deficiency of vasopressin. Nephrogenic DI is characterized by the kidneys inadequately responding to vasopressin. Dipsogenic DI is characterized by the oral ingestion of excessive amount of water, which results in a suppression of vasopressin release and ultimately leads to polyuria. Diabetes mellitus type 1 results from insufficient insulin production by pancreatic beta-cells.
Diabetes insipidus is a condition in which an individual has an insensitivity to or a deficiency of vasopressin (ADH). This is a hormone released by the posterior pituitary that is responsible for increasing water reabsorption in the kidney. There are three types of diabetes insipidus: neurogenic DI, nephrogenic DI, and dipsogenic DI. Neurogenic DI is characterized by damage to the posterior pituitary, which results in a deficiency of vasopressin. Nephrogenic DI is characterized by the kidneys inadequately responding to vasopressin. Dipsogenic DI is characterized by the oral ingestion of excessive amount of water, which results in a suppression of vasopressin release and ultimately leads to polyuria. Diabetes mellitus type 1 results from insufficient insulin production by pancreatic beta-cells.
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All of the following cranial nerves have a either a sensory or motor function involving the eyes EXCEPT:
All of the following cranial nerves have a either a sensory or motor function involving the eyes EXCEPT:
The trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV) has a motor function involving eye movement. The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) also has a motor function involving eye movement and contraction of the iris. The abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) has a sensory function involving eye movement. The hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII) has a motor function involving movement of the tongue.
The trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV) has a motor function involving eye movement. The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) also has a motor function involving eye movement and contraction of the iris. The abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) has a sensory function involving eye movement. The hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII) has a motor function involving movement of the tongue.
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A patient in the ICU presents with an acute disorder of attention, perception, and memory impairment. This is most accurately described as:
A patient in the ICU presents with an acute disorder of attention, perception, and memory impairment. This is most accurately described as:
Delirium is an acute disorder characterized by attention, perception, and memory impairment. It is often the symptom of an underlying condition such as dementia, medication overdose, substance intoxication, and electrolyte disorders.
Delirium is an acute disorder characterized by attention, perception, and memory impairment. It is often the symptom of an underlying condition such as dementia, medication overdose, substance intoxication, and electrolyte disorders.
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A patient in the ICU presents with acute pancreatitis. An examination reveals that the patient almost never consumes alcohol. The most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the nonalcoholic patient is:
A patient in the ICU presents with acute pancreatitis. An examination reveals that the patient almost never consumes alcohol. The most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the nonalcoholic patient is:
Pancreatitis is an inflammatory disease in which pancreatic enzymes, which normally function to digest food in the small intestines, become activated in the pancreas and initiate autodigestion. The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are alcoholism and biliary disease (gallstones). Other less common causes of acute pancreatitis include: codeine reaction, cystic fibrosis, and use of steroid medications.
Pancreatitis is an inflammatory disease in which pancreatic enzymes, which normally function to digest food in the small intestines, become activated in the pancreas and initiate autodigestion. The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are alcoholism and biliary disease (gallstones). Other less common causes of acute pancreatitis include: codeine reaction, cystic fibrosis, and use of steroid medications.
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Which of the following is NOT a measurement on an arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis?
Which of the following is NOT a measurement on an arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis?
Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis includes five measurements: pH, arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2), bicarbonate ion (HCO3-), arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2), and base excess (BE). Fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) is not apart of an ABG analysis.
Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis includes five measurements: pH, arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2), bicarbonate ion (HCO3-), arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2), and base excess (BE). Fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) is not apart of an ABG analysis.
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The process of ventilation has four phases. Which of the following correctly describes the events of Phase III?
The process of ventilation has four phases. Which of the following correctly describes the events of Phase III?
The four phases of ventilation are as follows: Phase I is the movement of ambient air in and out of the respiratory tract; Phase II is the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli; Phase III entails the delivery of oxygen to erythrocytes, and the removal of carbon dioxide from the erythrocytes and the bloodstream; Phase IV is the regulation of ventilation.
The four phases of ventilation are as follows: Phase I is the movement of ambient air in and out of the respiratory tract; Phase II is the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli; Phase III entails the delivery of oxygen to erythrocytes, and the removal of carbon dioxide from the erythrocytes and the bloodstream; Phase IV is the regulation of ventilation.
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