USMLE Step 3 Quiz
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PSYCHIATRY
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A 34-year-old man is being treated for his third lifetime episode of major depressive disorder. He has been taking sertraline 200 mg daily for the past 10 weeks. He reports some improvement in his energy and appetite but continues to feel significant anhedonia, low mood, and feelings of worthlessness. His PHQ-9 score has decreased from 22 to 15. He has no history of mania or psychosis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's depression?
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