DEA Schedules - Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Ptce

1. A patient has a new prescription for alprazolam. Under federal law, this prescription is valid for a maximum of 6 months from the date written and can be refilled up to how many times?
   Answer: Five times Alprazolam (Xanax) is a Schedule IV controlled substance. Prescriptions for Schedule III and IV medications may be refilled up to five times within six months of the date the prescription was issued.
2. A patient requests a refill on a prescription for phenobarbital. This drug is a barbiturate used to control seizures and is classified as which DEA schedule?
   Answer: Schedule IV Phenobarbital is classified as a Schedule IV controlled substance due to its potential for abuse and dependence, which is lower than that of substances in Schedules II and III.
3. Which of the following DEA schedules includes substances that have a high potential for abuse and no currently accepted medical use in the United States?
   Answer: Schedule I Schedule I substances, such as heroin and LSD, have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States. Schedule II substances have accepted medical uses despite high abuse potential.
4. In an emergency situation, a prescriber may telephone a prescription for a Schedule II medication to a pharmacy. What must the prescriber provide to the pharmacy within 7 days of the oral order?
   Answer: A signed, written prescription for the emergency quantity For an emergency oral C-II prescription, federal law requires that the prescriber provide a written and signed 'covering' prescription to the pharmacy within 7 days. It must have 'Authorization for Emergency Dispensing' written on its face.
5. According to federal law, what is the maximum number of times a prescription for hydrocodone/acetaminophen can be refilled?
   Answer: 0 Hydrocodone/acetaminophen (e.g., Norco, Vicodin) is a Schedule II controlled substance. Prescriptions for Schedule II medications cannot be refilled; a new prescription is required for each dispense.
6. Federal law requires that prescriptions for controlled substances in Schedules III, IV, and V be kept on file and readily retrievable by a pharmacy for a minimum of how long from the date of the last refill?
   Answer: 2 years The federal Controlled Substances Act (CSA) requires that all prescription records for controlled substances (Schedules II, III, IV, and V) be maintained for at least two years. State laws may require a longer duration, but two years is the federal minimum.
7. Which of the following medications is a Schedule V controlled substance?
   Answer: Diphenoxylate/atropine Diphenoxylate/atropine (Lomotil) is an antidiarrheal medication classified as a Schedule V controlled substance. Fentanyl is a C-II, lorazepam is a C-IV, and tramadol is a C-IV.
8. A valid prescription for any controlled substance from Schedule II through Schedule V must contain which of the following elements to be legally dispensed?
   Answer: The prescriber's DEA number A prescription for a controlled substance is only valid if it is issued by a practitioner registered with the DEA. Therefore, the prescription must include the practitioner's full name, address, and DEA registration number.
9. Codeine, when compounded in a limited quantity with one or more non-narcotic active ingredients, such as in acetaminophen with codeine #3 tablets, is classified as which DEA schedule?
   Answer: Schedule III Products containing not more than 90 milligrams of codeine per dosage unit combined with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients are classified as Schedule III. Single-entity codeine is Schedule II, and cough syrups with lower concentrations are often Schedule V.
10. A prescription for zolpidem is presented at the pharmacy. According to federal law, a pharmacy technician should identify this medication as belonging to which DEA schedule?
    Answer: Schedule IV Zolpidem (Ambien) is a sedative-hypnotic used for insomnia and is federally classified as a Schedule IV (C-IV) controlled substance due to its potential for abuse and dependence.
11. Which of the following statements accurately describes a key regulatory aspect of Schedule V controlled substances?
    Answer: They have the lowest potential for abuse among scheduled medications with a medical use. Schedule V substances have a low potential for abuse relative to the drugs in Schedule IV. They have accepted medical uses, do not require DEA Form 222 for ordering, and their prescriptions can be refilled as authorized by the prescriber.
12. Under federal law, a prescription for a Schedule III controlled substance can be transferred between two pharmacies that do not share a real-time, online database how many times?
    Answer: One time Federal law permits the one-time transfer of original prescription information for a Schedule III, IV, or V substance for the purpose of refill dispensing, provided the pharmacies do not share a common database. If they do share a database, they may transfer up to the maximum refills permitted.
13. A prescription for testosterone cypionate injection is considered which DEA schedule of controlled substance?
    Answer: Schedule III Testosterone and other anabolic steroids are classified as Schedule III controlled substances due to their potential for abuse and dependence, which is less than Schedule II substances but more than Schedule IV.
14. Which of the following is a federally required method for storing Schedule II controlled substances in a community pharmacy?
    Answer: Stored in a securely locked cabinet or vault Federal DEA regulations require Schedule II controlled substances to be stored in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet or vault, OR dispersed throughout the stock of non-controlled substances in such a manner as to obstruct theft. The locked cabinet/vault is the most commonly implemented secure storage method.
15. If the pharmacy dispenses a partial quantity of 50 tablets, by when must the remaining 70 tablets be supplied to the patient according to federal law?
    Answer: Within 72 hours When a pharmacy is unable to supply the full quantity of a Schedule II prescription, it may perform a partial fill. However, the remaining portion of the prescription must be filled within 72 hours of the partial filling. After 72 hours, the remaining quantity is void.
16. Which of the following is an example of a Schedule IV controlled substance?
    Answer: Clonazepam Clonazepam (Klonopin), a benzodiazepine, is a Schedule IV controlled substance. Lisdexamfetamine (Vyvanse) is a Schedule II stimulant. Buprenorphine (Suboxone) is a Schedule III opioid. Heroin is a Schedule I substance.
17. A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for Adderall XR. The technician should recognize this medication as belonging to which DEA schedule and handle it accordingly?
    Answer: Schedule II Adderall XR (amphetamine/dextroamphetamine mixed salts) is a central nervous system stimulant with a high potential for abuse. It is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance, which means it requires a written or valid electronic prescription and cannot have refills.
18. Which DEA schedule is characterized by drugs with a high potential for abuse, a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States, and with abuse that may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence?
    Answer: Schedule II This is the legal definition of a Schedule II (C-II) controlled substance. Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use. Schedule III and IV drugs have a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence, respectively.
19. A pharmacist must use DEA Form 222 to order which of the following medications?
    Answer: Methylphenidate DEA Form 222 is the official order form required for the purchase and transfer of Schedule I and II controlled substances. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a Schedule II drug. Diazepam (C-IV), codeine/guaifenesin syrup (C-V), and pregabalin (C-V) are ordered through other means.

Start this quiz