Practice Test 1 - NREMT AEMT Level

20 questions. Answer them in any order, then submit to see your score and every explanation.

  1. Which potential hazard represents the most immediate and critical threat to crew safety during the scene size-up?
  2. A 27-year-old trauma patient is drowsy, has a gag reflex, and intermittently obstructs with snoring. Vitals: RR 10, HR 112, BP 108/68, SpO2 83% on room air. You suction and choose a nasopharyngeal airway due to limited mouth opening, then place a supraglottic device when BVM is ineffective. What complication should be monitored for when using a supraglottic airway device during transport?
  3. What is the AEMT's most appropriate immediate action?
  4. Home: 35M asthma with wheezing, accessory muscle use; BP 130/82, HR 122, RR 34, SpO2 87%. He becomes drowsy during assessment. How should the AEMT manage the patient's airway given the current symptoms?
  5. This presentation is most characteristic of which gastrointestinal condition?
  6. An AEMT administers 0.5 mg of IM epinephrine to a 200-lb male in anaphylactic shock. What is the most important parameter to reassess within five minutes of administration?
  7. What is the most appropriate next step for gaining vascular access?
  8. The patient's systemic signs of tachycardia, hypotension, and confusion are most likely the result of which condition?
  9. What is the most likely cause of this change?
  10. Which of the following represents the correct medication and dose to administer for this patient?
  11. Cholecystitis suspected; patient rates pain 9/10, BP 136/84; which intervention is most appropriate?
  12. How should you document his motor response, and what does it signify?
  13. These findings should lead the AEMT to have a high index of suspicion for what injury?
  14. GI bleed patient becomes pale and confused after standing; what is the priority action for the AEMT?
  15. While providing care, the AEMT must maintain a high index of suspicion for which life-threatening emergency?
  16. Assisted living: 78F CHF, dyspnea worse lying flat; BP 172/94, HR 112, RR 28, SpO2 87%. Crackles, JVD, pitting edema. Meds: furosemide. Which intervention should be prioritized for this patient?
  17. When evaluating a patient with chest discomfort, the 'S' in the OPQRST mnemonic prompts the AEMT to ask about what aspect of the symptom?
  18. A 24-year-old female is found unconscious. Her friend states she complained of worsening left-sided abdominal pain for two days before collapsing. Assessment reveals a rapid, weak carotid pulse, shallow respirations at 28/min, and pale, clammy skin. BP is 70/40 mmHg. What is the immediate treatment priority?
  19. Hospital hallway: 52M sudden dyspnea after walking, pleuritic pain; BP 126/78, HR 124, RR 30, SpO2 90%. Recent long flight and calf tenderness. Lungs clear. What is the most likely condition based on the patient's presentation?
  20. A 45-year-old is found unresponsive with suspected opioid overdose: snoring, cyanotic lips, RR 4, SpO2 78% on room air, HR 48, BP 90/56. After suctioning and jaw-thrust, you insert an oropharyngeal airway due to absent gag reflex and begin BVM ventilation. You then place a supraglottic device when mask ventilation remains ineffective. What complication should be monitored for when using a supraglottic airway device?

Practice tests