Apply Research And Evaluation Principles - Licensed Master Social Worker LMSW

  1. Which p-value decision rule is correct when using alpha=0.05alpha = 0.05?
    Reject H0H_0 when p<0.05p < 0.05. If the p-value is less than the predetermined alpha level, there is sufficient evidence to reject the null hypothesis.
  2. What is a Type II error in null hypothesis significance testing?
    Failing to reject a false H0H_0 (false negative). This happens when a real effect is missed, often due to insufficient power.
  3. Which threat to internal validity occurs when participant changes are due to normal development over time?
    Maturation. Natural growth or aging processes can cause changes mistaken for treatment effects in longitudinal studies.
  4. What is the key limitation of a cross-sectional study for determining cause and effect?
    It cannot establish temporal order. Data is collected at a single time point, making it impossible to determine if the independent variable preceded the dependent variable.
  5. What does statistical power represent in hypothesis testing?
    Probability of detecting a true effect (rejecting a false H0H_0). It quantifies the test's ability to identify an actual effect, influenced by sample size, effect size, and significance level.
  6. Which evaluation focuses on how well a program is implemented (fidelity, reach, dose delivered)?
    Process evaluation. It examines the operational aspects to ensure the program is delivered as intended.
  7. Which sampling method gives every population member an equal probability of selection?
    Simple random sampling. This method uses random selection to ensure unbiased representation of the population.
  8. Which threat to internal validity occurs when outside events affect outcomes during the study period?
    History. External events coinciding with the study can influence results, confounding the intervention's impact.
  9. What is the best definition of reliability for a measurement instrument?
    Consistency of measurement across time, items, or raters. It indicates the extent to which the instrument produces stable and consistent results under consistent conditions.
  10. What is the primary purpose of a control group in an experimental study?
    Provide a comparison baseline for the intervention group. It allows researchers to attribute differences in outcomes to the intervention rather than other factors.
  11. What is the best definition of validity for a measurement instrument?
    Degree to which the instrument measures the intended construct. It ensures that the tool accurately captures what it is supposed to measure, not something else.
  12. What does Cronbach's alpha primarily estimate for a multi-item scale?
    Internal consistency reliability. It assesses how well the items measure the same underlying construct by analyzing inter-item correlations.
  13. Which research design best supports causal inference by randomly assigning participants to groups?
    Randomized controlled trial (true experimental design). Randomization minimizes confounding variables, enabling stronger causal claims about the intervention's effects.
  14. What is the primary problem with convenience sampling for generalizing findings?
    Selection bias reduces external validity. Samples are chosen based on ease of access, leading to non-representative groups that limit generalizability to the broader population.
  15. What is the best definition of a confounding variable in program evaluation research?
    A third variable related to both IV and DV that biases results. It creates a spurious association or masks a true one between the independent and dependent variables.
  16. Which reliability type evaluates agreement between two independent observers or coders?
    Interrater reliability. It measures the degree of consensus among raters observing the same phenomena.
  17. Which evaluation type primarily examines whether a program achieved intended results or outcomes?
    Outcome evaluation. It assesses the effectiveness by measuring changes in targeted outcomes attributable to the program.
  18. Which validity type concerns whether a measure behaves as theory predicts (e.g., convergent evidence)?
    Construct validity. It accumulates evidence that the measure relates to other variables as expected by theoretical frameworks.
  19. Which reliability type is assessed by administering the same test twice to the same people?
    Test–retest reliability. This method evaluates stability by correlating scores from two administrations separated by time.
  20. Which validity type addresses whether items adequately cover the construct domain?
    Content validity. This involves expert judgment to confirm that the test items represent the full range of the construct.
  21. Which validity type is supported when a measure correlates with an established gold-standard measure?
    Criterion validity (concurrent if measured at same time). It demonstrates that the new measure aligns with a trusted criterion, either concurrently or predictively.
  22. What is a Type I error in null hypothesis significance testing?
    Rejecting a true H0H_0 (false positive). This error occurs when the null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected, controlled by the alpha level.
  23. What does a 95%95\% confidence interval mean in frequentist terms?
    95%95\% of such intervals would contain the true parameter. In repeated sampling, 95% of constructed intervals would include the true population parameter.
  24. What is the main advantage of stratified random sampling compared with simple random sampling?
    Ensures representation of key subgroups (strata). By dividing the population into strata and sampling proportionally, it guarantees that subgroups are adequately represented in the sample.
  25. What is the defining feature of a longitudinal study design?
    Repeated measurement of the same participants over time. This design tracks changes and developments in variables within the same cohort across multiple time points.

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