CPA Taxation & Regulation (REG) • Ethics, Professional Responsibilities, And Federal Tax Procedures

Ethical And Professional Responsibilities — Identify Ethical And Professional Responsibilities In Tax Practice

Understanding the ethical standards and professional duties that govern CPAs in tax engagements.

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Inside this lesson 10 sections 5 questions 7 figures

SECTION 1

Historical Context & Motivation

The American tax system relies heavily on voluntary compliance, meaning taxpayers self-assess and self-report their tax obligations. This structure places an enormous burden on tax practitioners — particularly Certified Public Accountants — who serve as intermediaries between taxpayers and the government. Because these professionals possess specialized knowledge that their clients often lack, ethical guardrails have been developed over more than a century to ensure that the public interest is protected, that taxpayers receive competent advice, and that the integrity of the tax system is maintained. Without such standards, the asymmetry of knowledge between practitioners and clients could easily be exploited, eroding public trust in both the profession and the revenue system that funds government operations.

1913 • 16th Amendment Ratified

The ratification of the 16th Amendment authorized the federal income tax, creating an immediate need for professionals who could navigate the new revenue code and represent taxpayers before the government.

1966 • Treasury Circular 230 Formalized

The Treasury Department codified rules governing practice before the IRS in Circular 230, establishing due diligence requirements, conflicts of interest standards, and disciplinary procedures for enrolled agents, CPAs, and attorneys.

1988 • IRC §§ 6694–6695 Penalties Strengthened

Congress enacted stronger preparer penalties under the Internal Revenue Code, imposing monetary sanctions on tax return preparers who take unreasonable positions or engage in willful or reckless conduct.

2009 • AICPA Statements on Standards for Tax Services Revised

The AICPA updated its Statements on Standards for Tax Services (SSTS), providing comprehensive guidance on a CPA's responsibilities related to tax return positions, client information, and procedural matters.

2014 • Circular 230 Major Revision

The Treasury Department significantly revised Circular 230, removing the covered opinion framework and streamlining written advice standards, while strengthening competence and diligence requirements.

These regulatory milestones reflect a persistent tension at the heart of tax practice: the practitioner must simultaneously advocate for the client's lawful tax minimization while upholding obligations to the tax system and the public. Understanding how this dual obligation arose historically — and how it has been codified in professional standards — is essential for any CPA candidate preparing for the REG examination and for anyone entering professional tax practice.

SECTION 2

Core Principles & Definitions

Ethical and professional responsibilities in tax practice are governed by three overlapping frameworks: Treasury Department Circular 230, the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct (including the Statements on Standards for Tax Services), and the Internal Revenue Code penalty provisions that impose monetary sanctions on tax return preparers. Each of these sources creates binding obligations that define the boundaries of acceptable professional behavior in tax engagements.

1

Due Diligence

A practitioner must exercise reasonable care in preparing, approving, and filing tax returns, documents, and other communications with the IRS. This includes verifying the accuracy and completeness of information provided by the client.
2

Competence

CPAs must possess the necessary knowledge and skill to perform tax services. If a practitioner lacks competence in a specific area, they should either acquire the expertise, consult with a qualified colleague, or decline the engagement.
3

Integrity & Objectivity

Tax practitioners must not subordinate their professional judgment to the wishes of the client. They must remain free from conflicts of interest and must not knowingly misrepresent facts or sign returns containing positions they know to be false.
4

Confidentiality (IRC § 7216)

Tax return preparers face criminal penalties for unauthorized disclosure or use of tax return information. Except in limited circumstances — such as court orders, peer reviews, or client consent — all information obtained during a tax engagement must remain confidential.
5

Reasonable Basis Standard

Under Circular 230 and the IRC, a practitioner must not advise or sign a return with a position that lacks a reasonable basis. For undisclosed positions, the standard escalates to substantial authority, and for tax shelters, to a more-likely-than-not threshold.
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KEY TAKEAWAY

Think of a CPA in tax practice as analogous to a structural engineer certifying a building. The engineer advocates for the client's design vision, but ultimately the engineer's signature certifies that the structure meets code. If the engineer signs off on a design they know is unsafe, their license — and potentially the building's occupants — are at risk. Similarly, when a CPA signs a tax return, they are certifying that the positions taken have an adequate legal basis, even while pursuing the client's goal of lawful tax minimization.

SECTION 3

Visual Framework: The Three Pillars of Tax Ethics

Three Regulatory Pillars Governing Tax Practice EthicsCPA TAX PRACTITIONERCIRCULAR 230(Treasury Department)• Due diligence• Competence• Conflicts of interest• Written advice rules• Sanctions & censure• Return of client recordsEnforced by: IRS Officeof Professional ResponsibilityAICPA CODE & SSTS(Professional Standards)• Tax return positions• Answers to questions• Estimates in returns• Departure from prior• Knowledge of errors• Client advocacyEnforced by: AICPA &State Boards of AccountancyIRC PENALTIES(Federal Statute)• § 6694 unreasonablepositions• § 6695 proceduralfailures• § 6713 disclosureviolations• § 7216 criminalpenaltiesEnforced by: IRS &Department of JusticeOverlapping jurisdictions — a CPA must satisfy all three simultaneouslyPublic Interest
The diagram illustrates how three regulatory frameworks simultaneously govern a CPA's conduct in tax practice. Circular 230 (violet) addresses practice before the IRS, the AICPA Code and SSTS (cyan) set professional standards, and IRC penalty provisions (pink) impose statutory sanctions. All three rest on the foundation of the practitioner's duty to the public interest.

Notice that these three pillars are not mutually exclusive — a single act of professional misconduct can trigger sanctions under Circular 230 (suspension or disbarment from IRS practice), disciplinary action by a state board of accountancy under the AICPA Code, and monetary penalties under the IRC, all simultaneously. For example, a CPA who knowingly signs a return containing a frivolous position could face a § 6694 penalty of the greater of $1,000 or 50% of income derived from the return, censure or disbarment under Circular 230 § 10.52, and revocation of their CPA license by the state board. Understanding that these frameworks operate in concert — rather than as alternatives — is essential for grasping the full scope of a tax practitioner's professional responsibilities.

SECTION 4

How Standards Operate: Return Position Thresholds

One of the most tested areas on the REG examination is the hierarchy of confidence thresholds that a tax return position must satisfy. The level of authority required depends on two factors: whether the position is disclosed on the return (typically via Form 8275 or 8275-R) and whether the position involves a tax shelter or reportable transaction. These thresholds apply to tax return preparers under IRC § 6694 and are paralleled in Circular 230 and the AICPA SSTS.

Confidence Threshold Hierarchy

UNDISCLOSED POSITION — STANDARD

SubstantialAuthority≈40Substantial Authority ≈ 40% likelihood of being sustained on its merits

Under IRC § 6694(a), an undisclosed position on a non-tax-shelter return must meet the substantial authority standard. While the IRC does not assign a precise percentage, the Treasury regulations and legislative history suggest a confidence level approximating 40%.

DISCLOSED POSITION — REDUCED STANDARD

ReasonableBasis≈20Reasonable Basis ≈ 20% likelihood of being sustained on its merits

When a position is adequately disclosed on the return (Form 8275/8275-R), the threshold drops to reasonable basis. This is significantly lower than substantial authority but still requires more than a merely arguable position.

TAX SHELTER / REPORTABLE TRANSACTION

More−Likely−Than−Not>50More-Likely-Than-Not > 50% likelihood of being sustained on its merits

For tax shelters and reportable transactions under § 6662A, the position must satisfy the more-likely-than-not standard — a greater than 50% chance of success if challenged. Disclosure does not reduce this standard.

Tax Return Position Confidence Spectrum

0% 100%
Disclosed position minimum (20%)Undisclosed position minimum (40%)Tax shelter minimum (50%)

These thresholds are not merely academic abstractions — they directly determine whether a CPA faces penalties under § 6694. Under § 6694(a), the penalty for an unreasonable position is the greater of $1,000 or 50% of the income derived from the return or refund claim. Under § 6694(b), when the understatement is due to willful or reckless conduct, the penalty escalates to the greater of $5,000 or 75% of the income derived from the return. The practitioner therefore has strong financial incentives — in addition to ethical ones — to ensure that return positions meet the applicable threshold.

SECTION 5

Detailed Breakdown: Circular 230 and AICPA SSTS

While the three regulatory pillars overlap considerably, each has unique provisions that merit close study. Circular 230 (31 C.F.R. Part 10) is organized into five subparts. Subpart A defines who may practice before the IRS — CPAs, attorneys, enrolled agents, enrolled actuaries, and enrolled retirement plan agents. Subpart B prescribes affirmative duties and restrictions, while Subpart C establishes sanctions ranging from censure to disbarment. The AICPA Statements on Standards for Tax Services (SSTS) provide seven enforceable standards that apply to AICPA members in tax practice. Together, these frameworks address virtually every ethical scenario a CPA will encounter.

AICPA Statements on Standards for Tax Services (SSTS) OverviewSSTS No. 1 — Tax Return PositionsA CPA should not recommend or take a return position unless there is a realistic possibility of beingsustained on its merits. The CPA should also consider whether the position requires disclosure.SSTS No. 2 — Answers to Questions on ReturnsA CPA should make a reasonable effort to obtain information to provide appropriate answers. If data isunavailable, the reason for omission should not be considered a return position under SSTS No. 1.SSTS No. 3 — Certain Procedural Aspects of Preparing ReturnsA CPA may in good faith rely on information furnished by the client without verification. However, theCPA should not ignore implications of information and must make reasonable inquiries if data appears incorrect.SSTS No. 4 — Use of EstimatesA CPA may use estimates if exact data is impractical to obtain and the amounts are reasonable. The useof estimates should not imply greater accuracy than exists, and must comply with IRS guidelines.SSTS No. 5 — Departure from a Position Previously ConcludedA CPA is not obligated to follow the same tax treatment from a prior year unless required by treaty, closingagreement, or other authority. Changed facts or law may warrant a different position.SSTS No. 6 — Knowledge of ErrorCPA must advise client of the errorand recommend corrective measures.SSTS No. 7 — Form and Content of AdviceCPA must communicate clearly anddocument significant assumptions.All seven SSTS are enforceable under the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct
This diagram provides a visual summary of all seven AICPA Statements on Standards for Tax Services. Each standard addresses a specific dimension of the CPA's responsibilities — from the legal basis for return positions (SSTS No. 1) to the obligation to communicate clearly when providing written advice (SSTS No. 7). Note that SSTS No. 6 (Knowledge of Error) is particularly significant: the CPA must inform the client of any discovered error but may not disclose the error to the IRS without client consent, absent a legal obligation to do so.
⚠

Critical Distinction: Knowledge of Error

Under SSTS No. 6, when a CPA discovers an error in a previously filed return, the CPA must promptly advise the client of the error and recommend that the client file an amended return. However, the CPA is not authorized to inform the IRS without the client's permission because of confidentiality obligations under IRC § 7216 and the AICPA Code. If the client refuses to correct the error, the CPA should consider whether to continue the professional relationship and whether the error affects the current-year return.

SECTION 6

Worked Example: Analyzing an Ethical Scenario

The following worked example illustrates how a CPA should apply the three regulatory frameworks to a realistic tax practice scenario involving a questionable deduction, an error on a prior return, and the question of adequate disclosure.

Scenario: Home Office Deduction and Prior-Year Error

  1. 1

    Step 1 — Identify the Facts

    CPA Sandra prepares the 2024 tax return for Client X, a sole proprietor. Client X asks Sandra to claim a home office deduction of $12,000. During the engagement, Sandra discovers that Client X's 2023 return (prepared by another firm) incorrectly excluded $8,000 of gross income from a freelance project. Client X tells Sandra he "doesn't want to deal with it."
  2. 2

    Step 2 — Analyze the Home Office Deduction

    Sandra reviews the documentation for the home office deduction. Client X uses one room exclusively and regularly for business, which satisfies the IRC § 280A requirement. However, the $12,000 figure is based on the client's rough estimate of total housing costs. Under SSTS No. 4 (Use of Estimates), Sandra may use the estimate if precise data is impractical to obtain, but she must ensure the estimate is reasonable and clearly presented. She requests utility bills and mortgage statements to verify the reasonableness of the $12,000 figure.
    The deduction position meets the substantial authority standard if properly documented; if any doubt exists, Sandra should disclose via Form 8275 to reduce the threshold to reasonable basis.
  3. 3

    Step 3 — Address the Prior-Year Error

    Under SSTS No. 6 (Knowledge of Error), Sandra is obligated to inform Client X of the $8,000 omission and recommend that he file an amended return (Form 1040-X) for 2023. Under Circular 230 § 10.21, she must advise the client promptly of the noncompliance. However, Sandra cannot disclose the error to the IRS without Client X's consent.
    Sandra must advise Client X of the error and recommend an amended return. She may not disclose to the IRS without consent.
  4. 4

    Step 4 — Evaluate Whether to Continue the Engagement

    If Client X refuses to amend the 2023 return, Sandra must consider whether the error affects the 2024 return (for example, whether a net operating loss carryforward would change). Under SSTS No. 6, the CPA should consider whether the client's refusal to correct the error makes it inappropriate to continue the engagement. Circular 230 § 10.22 similarly requires the practitioner not to act with unreasonable delay and to exercise appropriate diligence.
    If the prior-year error affects the current return, Sandra cannot sign the 2024 return without appropriate adjustment. She may need to withdraw from the engagement.
  5. 5

    Step 5 — Assess Preparer Penalty Exposure

    Sandra reviews her penalty exposure. If she signs the 2024 return with a home office deduction that lacks substantial authority and is not disclosed, she faces a § 6694(a) penalty of the greater of $1,000 or 50% of income derived from preparing the return. If she knowingly ignores the prior-year error and its impact on the current return, the penalty could escalate under § 6694(b) to the greater of $5,000 or 75% of income derived. She documents her analysis and correspondence with Client X to demonstrate due diligence.
    Proper documentation of the analysis, client communications, and the legal basis for all positions is Sandra's primary defense against preparer penalties.

SECTION 7

Comparing Circular 230 and AICPA SSTS Requirements

While Circular 230 and the AICPA SSTS share many underlying principles, their scope, enforcement mechanisms, and specific requirements differ in important ways. The following comparison table highlights these distinctions, which are commonly tested on the REG examination.

FeatureCircular 230AICPA SSTS
Issuing AuthorityU.S. Treasury DepartmentAICPA (private professional body)
Who Is CoveredCPAs, attorneys, enrolled agents, enrolled actuaries, enrolled retirement plan agentsAICPA members only (primarily CPAs)
Enforcement BodyIRS Office of Professional Responsibility (OPR)AICPA and State Boards of Accountancy
SanctionsCensure, suspension, disbarment from IRS practice, monetary penaltiesAdmonishment, suspension, expulsion from AICPA membership; state license revocation
Return Position StandardReasonable basis (minimum); cannot take frivolous positionsRealistic possibility of being sustained on merits (similar to reasonable basis)
Written Advice Rules§ 10.37 — must be based on reasonable assumptions, consider all relevant facts, cannot take into account audit likelihoodSSTS No. 7 — must communicate clearly, document significant assumptions and caveats
Conflicts of Interest§ 10.29 — must obtain informed written consent from all affected partiesAICPA Code Rule 1.110 — similar requirement with emphasis on independence and objectivity

Comparison of key provisions between Treasury Circular 230 and the AICPA Statements on Standards for Tax Services

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KEY TAKEAWAY

Think of Circular 230 as the federal government's licensing requirements for driving on public highways, while the AICPA SSTS are more like an automobile manufacturer's quality standards. Both aim for safety, but one is enforced by a government agency (the IRS Office of Professional Responsibility) and the other by a professional body (the AICPA and state boards). A CPA who violates Circular 230 may lose the ability to practice before the IRS entirely — akin to losing a driver's license — whereas violating the SSTS results in professional discipline that affects membership and, through state board adoption, potentially the CPA license itself.

SECTION 8

Connections to Advanced Practice and Emerging Issues

The ethical framework covered in this lesson provides the foundation for more advanced topics that candidates and practitioners encounter as they progress in their careers. Understanding the basic principles of due diligence, competence, and return position thresholds is essential before engaging with the more nuanced issues of tax opinion practice, IRS examination representation, and cross-border tax compliance, where ethical dilemmas become substantially more complex.

Foundational Concept (This Lesson)Advanced Application
Return position thresholds (reasonable basis, substantial authority, more-likely-than-not)Evaluating uncertain tax positions (ASC 740-10) and FIN 48 reserves in financial statements; advising clients on tax shelter disclosure obligations
Circular 230 written advice rules (§ 10.37)Drafting formal tax opinions for transaction due diligence; engagement letters for advisory services; Kovel agreements for attorney-accountant privilege
SSTS No. 6 — Knowledge of ErrorNavigating IRS Voluntary Disclosure Practice; advising clients under criminal investigation; Sarbanes-Oxley reporting obligations for public company auditors who discover tax fraud
Confidentiality (IRC § 7216)IRC § 7525 tax practitioner privilege; interaction with state data privacy laws; FATCA and CRS automatic exchange of information in cross-border practice
Preparer penalties (§§ 6694–6695)Aiding and abetting understatement penalties (§ 6701); promoter penalties (§ 6700); criminal penalties under §§ 7201–7207 for willful evasion or fraud

How foundational ethical concepts connect to advanced tax practice topics

Additionally, the profession continues to evolve in response to technological change and global regulatory developments. The increasing use of artificial intelligence in tax preparation software raises new questions about a practitioner's due diligence obligations when relying on automated recommendations. Similarly, the expansion of international information exchange agreements under FATCA and the OECD Common Reporting Standard introduces cross-jurisdictional ethical obligations that did not exist when Circular 230 was first formalized. Mastery of the foundational framework positions you to navigate these emerging challenges with confidence.

SECTION 9

Practice Problems

Question 1: CONCEPTUAL

Under Treasury Department Circular 230, which of the following best describes the standard a tax practitioner must meet when signing a client's tax return as a paid preparer?
  • A. The practitioner must have a good-faith belief that the tax treatment of each position is correct.
  • B. The practitioner must determine that there is a reasonable basis for each position taken on the return.
  • C. The practitioner must determine that there is a realistic possibility of success for each position taken on the return.
  • D. The practitioner must be certain that each position taken on the return will be sustained on its merits.
Show answer
The correct answer is C. Under Circular 230, a practitioner must not willfully, recklessly, or through gross incompetence sign a return that the practitioner knows or reasonably should know contains a position that lacks a realistic possibility of being sustained on its merits (unless the position is not frivolous and is adequately disclosed). Answer A is incorrect because a 'good-faith belief' is a vague standard that does not match the specific Circular 230 requirement. Answer B is incorrect because 'reasonable basis' is the lower standard used for disclosed positions under the IRC penalty provisions (Section 6694), not the primary Circular 230 standard for undisclosed positions. Answer D is incorrect because certainty is not required — practitioners are not expected to guarantee that every position will be sustained; they must only ensure a realistic possibility of success.

Question 2: BASIC CALCULATION

A CPA prepared a tax return for a client and took an undisclosed position on the return that did not meet the substantial authority standard. Under IRC Section 6694(a), what is the penalty amount the IRS may impose on the tax return preparer for an understatement of tax liability due to an unreasonable position?
  • A. $250 or 50% of the income derived by the preparer with respect to the return, whichever is greater.
  • B. $1,000 or 50% of the income derived by the preparer with respect to the return, whichever is greater.
  • C. $5,000 or 75% of the income derived by the preparer with respect to the return, whichever is greater.
  • D. $5,000 or 50% of the income derived by the preparer with respect to the return, whichever is greater.
Show answer
The correct answer is B. Under IRC Section 6694(a), the penalty for an understatement due to an unreasonable position is the greater of $1,000 or 50% of the income derived (or to be derived) by the tax return preparer with respect to the return or claim for refund. Answer A is incorrect because $250 is not the statutory threshold — it understates the penalty amount. Answer C is incorrect because while the $5,000 amount applies under Section 6694(b) for willful or reckless conduct, that subsection uses 75% (not 50%) as the alternative, and the $5,000/75% penalty addresses a different and more serious level of misconduct. Answer D is incorrect because the $5,000 threshold applies to the willful or reckless conduct penalty under Section 6694(b), not the unreasonable position penalty under Section 6694(a).

Question 3: INTERMEDIATE

A CPA discovers an error on a client's previously filed tax return that resulted in a significant understatement of tax. The client, after being informed, refuses to file an amended return or otherwise correct the error. Under the AICPA Statements on Standards for Tax Services (SSTS), which of the following actions should the CPA take?
  • A. Notify the IRS of the error without the client's consent.
  • B. File an amended return on the client's behalf without the client's authorization.
  • C. Consider whether to continue the professional relationship with the client and take the error into account in preparing subsequent returns.
  • D. Withdraw from the engagement immediately and inform the IRS of the reason for withdrawal.
Show answer
The correct answer is C. Under SSTS No. 6, when a CPA becomes aware of an error in a previously filed return, the CPA should advise the client of the error and recommend corrective measures. If the client refuses, the CPA should consider whether to continue the professional relationship and must consider the impact of the error when preparing current-year or future returns. Answer A is incorrect because the CPA is prohibited from notifying the IRS without the client's consent due to confidentiality requirements — the CPA may not unilaterally disclose client information. Answer B is incorrect because the CPA has no authority to file an amended return without the client's consent or authorization; the decision to amend belongs to the client. Answer D is incorrect because while withdrawal may ultimately be appropriate, the CPA is not required to withdraw immediately, and the CPA may never inform the IRS of the specific reason for withdrawal, as doing so would violate client confidentiality obligations.

Question 4: APPLIED

Taylor, a CPA, is preparing a federal income tax return for a new client. The client provides Taylor with documentation for all income items and most deductions. However, for a $15,000 charitable contribution deduction, the client only provides an oral statement that the donation was made but cannot locate the receipt. The client assures Taylor the contribution was made to a qualifying organization. Under the AICPA Statements on Standards for Tax Services and applicable professional standards, which of the following best describes Taylor's responsibility?
  • A. Taylor may rely on the client's oral representation without further inquiry and claim the deduction.
  • B. Taylor should make reasonable inquiries if the information appears incomplete or inconsistent and should consider the substantiation requirements before claiming the deduction.
  • C. Taylor must refuse to prepare the return because written documentation for every deduction is required before the return can be filed.
  • D. Taylor must independently verify the charitable contribution by contacting the charitable organization directly.
Show answer
The correct answer is B. Under SSTS No. 3, a CPA may generally rely on information provided by the client without requiring verification. However, the CPA should not ignore the implications of information furnished and should make reasonable inquiries if the information appears to be incorrect, incomplete, or inconsistent. For a $15,000 charitable contribution, IRC Section 170 requires contemporaneous written acknowledgment for contributions of $250 or more, so Taylor should advise the client of the substantiation requirements and consider whether taking the position without proper documentation is appropriate. Answer A is incorrect because while a CPA may generally rely on client representations, the absence of required substantiation documentation for a significant deduction should prompt further inquiry — blind reliance is not appropriate when substantiation requirements are clearly not met. Answer C is incorrect because a CPA is not required to obtain written documentation for every item on a return; however, the CPA must exercise professional judgment regarding items that have specific substantiation requirements under the tax law. Answer D is incorrect because there is no professional requirement for a CPA to independently verify information by contacting third parties; the duty is to make reasonable inquiries of the client and consider whether the position meets applicable standards.

Question 5: CRITICAL THINKING

Martin, a CPA and enrolled agent, represents a client during an IRS audit. During the engagement, Martin discovers that the client has intentionally omitted $200,000 of income from the return under examination. The client instructs Martin to continue the representation and not disclose the omission to the IRS. Under Treasury Department Circular 230 and applicable ethical standards, which of the following represents the most appropriate course of action for Martin?
  • A. Continue representing the client during the audit but avoid making any affirmative misrepresentations to the IRS about the omitted income.
  • B. Immediately notify the IRS examining agent of the omitted income to fulfill the duty of candor owed to the government.
  • C. Advise the client of the consequences of the omission, request that the client authorize disclosure, and withdraw from the representation if the client refuses to correct the omission.
  • D. Continue the representation because the duty of confidentiality to the client always takes precedence over the duty of candor to the IRS.
Show answer
The correct answer is C. Under Circular 230, a practitioner must not advise a client to take a position on a document to be submitted to the IRS unless there is a reasonable basis for the position, and the practitioner must promptly advise the client of any noncompliance, error, or omission. If the client refuses to correct the omission, the practitioner cannot continue to represent the client because doing so would effectively require the practitioner to assist in perpetuating a fraud on the IRS, which violates Circular 230's prohibition against assisting in fraudulent or illegal conduct. Withdrawal is required when continuing the engagement would result in a violation of the practitioner's ethical obligations. Answer A is incorrect because merely avoiding affirmative misrepresentations is insufficient — under Circular 230, a practitioner who knows of an omission and continues to represent the client in the audit proceeding without correcting it is effectively participating in the concealment, even through silence. Answer B is incorrect because while the practitioner has a duty of candor to the IRS, the practitioner may not unilaterally disclose the client's confidential information without the client's consent; the proper step is to request the client's authorization first and withdraw if the client refuses. Answer D is incorrect because the duty of confidentiality does not override the practitioner's obligation not to participate in conduct that constitutes a fraud upon the IRS — when the two obligations conflict, the practitioner must withdraw from the representation rather than become complicit in the client's fraud.

SUMMARY

Lesson Summary

Summary

Ethical and professional responsibilities in tax practice are governed by three interlocking frameworks: Treasury Department Circular 230, which regulates practice before the IRS and is enforced by the Office of Professional Responsibility; the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct and Statements on Standards for Tax Services, which provide seven enforceable standards covering everything from tax return positions to knowledge of errors; and the IRC penalty provisions (§§ 6694–6695, 7216), which impose monetary and criminal sanctions on preparers who take unreasonable positions or misuse client information.

The core principles unifying all three frameworks are due diligence, competence, integrity, and confidentiality. Tax return positions must satisfy escalating confidence thresholds: reasonable basis (~20%) for disclosed positions, substantial authority (~40%) for undisclosed positions, and more-likely-than-not (>50%) for tax shelters and reportable transactions. When a CPA discovers an error in a prior return, they must advise the client but may not disclose to the IRS without consent. Mastery of these standards is essential for both the CPA examination and for ethical practice in the profession.

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