Fraud And Compliance Rules - Certified Professional Coder CPC

  1. A physician reports a CPT code with a Medically Unlikely Edit (MUE) value of 2. The claim is submitted with 3 units of service for a single date of service. What is the most likely outcome for this claim line?
    Answer: The first 2 units will be paid, and the 3rd unit will be automatically denied. Medically Unlikely Edits (MUEs) set the maximum number of units of service a provider would report for a single beneficiary on a single date of service. For a claim line exceeding the MUE value, Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs) will typically pay for the units up to the MUE value and deny the excess units.
  2. A coder at a surgery center bills separately for a surgical approach, the main surgical procedure, and the surgical closure. These are all considered integral parts of the main surgical procedure according to standard coding guidelines. This practice is an example of:
    Answer: Unbundling Unbundling is the practice of billing individual components of a service as separate procedures when a single, comprehensive code exists that includes all of those components. The surgical approach and standard closure are almost always included in the global surgical package for the main procedure.
  3. A patient's friend calls the physician's office to ask about the patient's test results. The office receptionist checks the patient's file, which does not contain an authorization to release information to this individual. How should the receptionist respond?
    Answer: State that due to privacy rules, they cannot provide any information without the patient's explicit consent. Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, a covered entity cannot disclose Protected Health Information (PHI) to anyone other than the patient or the patient's authorized representative without explicit consent. The correct response is to decline the request, citing privacy regulations.
  4. A physician who has an ownership interest in a local imaging center refers his Medicare patients to that center for all their MRI needs. This arrangement may violate which of the following regulations?
    Answer: The Physician Self-Referral Law (Stark Law) The Physician Self-Referral Law, commonly known as the Stark Law, prohibits physicians from referring Medicare or Medicaid patients for designated health services (DHS), such as imaging, to an entity with which the physician or an immediate family member has a financial relationship, unless a specific exception applies.
  5. A physician provides a service to a Medicare patient that the physician believes may not be considered medically necessary by Medicare. A properly executed Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) was signed by the patient before the service was provided. Which modifier should be appended to the CPT code on the claim?
    Answer: GA Modifier GA (Waiver of liability statement issued as required by payer policy) is used to indicate that a required ABN is on file because a service is expected to be denied as not reasonable and necessary. This transfers potential financial liability to the patient if Medicare denies the claim.
  6. A billing office discovers a single instance where a coder mistakenly used a higher-level E/M code for a patient visit, resulting in an overpayment of $40. The error was unintentional, the overpayment was returned, and the coder was retrained. This event would most likely be classified as:
    Answer: An error This scenario represents an error - a single, unintentional mistake that was promptly identified, corrected, and addressed through training. Fraud requires intent to deceive, abuse involves a pattern of practices inconsistent with accepted medical practice, and waste typically refers to overutilization of services. The corrective actions taken demonstrate this was an isolated error.
  7. According to NCCI policy, when is it appropriate to use modifier 59, Distinct Procedural Service?
    Answer: To identify procedures that are not normally reported together but are appropriate under the circumstances, such as a different session, different procedure, or different anatomic site. Modifier 59 is used to indicate that a procedure or service was distinct or independent from other non-E/M services performed on the same day. The documentation must support a valid reason for unbundling, such as a different session, different procedure or surgery, different site or organ system, separate incision/excision, separate lesion, or separate injury.
  8. A provider performs a procedure they know is not medically necessary for a Medicare patient. The provider fails to obtain an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) from the patient prior to the service. How should this service be reported on the claim form?
    Answer: Bill Medicare with modifier GZ appended to the procedure code. Modifier GZ (Item or service expected to be denied as not reasonable and necessary) is used when the provider expects a denial for lack of medical necessity but did not obtain an ABN. Appending modifier GZ automatically assigns financial liability to the provider, meaning they cannot bill the patient for the service.
  9. A physician's office hires a third-party company to handle its billing. This company will have access to patient demographic, insurance, and diagnosis information. Under HIPAA, what is required to permit this relationship?
    Answer: The office must have the company sign a Business Associate Agreement (BAA). A third-party company that performs a function on behalf of a covered entity and has access to PHI is a Business Associate. HIPAA requires a signed Business Associate Agreement (BAA) between the covered entity and the business associate. This BAA contractually requires the business associate to protect the PHI it handles.
  10. A patient has a lesion removed from their right arm and a completely separate, unrelated lesion removed from their left leg during the same encounter. The NCCI edit bundles the two excision codes. Which modifier would be most appropriate to indicate the two procedures were performed on separate anatomic sites?
    Answer: Modifier XS Modifier XS (Separate Structure) is one of the more specific X-modifiers used in place of modifier 59. It correctly identifies that the service is distinct because it was performed on a separate organ or structure (in this case, the right arm versus the left leg). This is the most precise modifier for this scenario.
  11. A durable medical equipment (DME) company offers a physician a cash payment for every patient they refer for a specialized wheelchair. Both parties knowingly and willfully enter into this agreement. This is a potential violation of the:
    Answer: Anti-Kickback Statute The Anti-Kickback Statute (AKS) is a criminal law that prohibits the knowing and willful payment of remuneration (such as cash) to induce or reward patient referrals for items or services payable by a Federal health care program. This scenario is a classic example of an illegal kickback.
  12. The billing department of a hospital needs to access patient records to submit claims. According to the HIPAA Privacy Rule's "minimum necessary" standard, what information are they permitted to access?
    Answer: Only the specific demographic and clinical information needed to complete the claim form for the services rendered. The minimum necessary standard requires covered entities to limit the use and disclosure of Protected Health Information (PHI) to the minimum amount necessary to accomplish the intended purpose. For billing, this includes demographics, insurance information, dates of service, procedures, and diagnoses, but not the entire detailed clinical record.
  13. A surgeon performs an exploratory laparotomy (49000) and during the procedure, also performs an appendectomy (44950). According to NCCI edits, the appendectomy is a Column 2 code bundled into the exploratory laparotomy (Column 1). Under which circumstance could both procedures be reported with a modifier?
    Answer: The appendectomy was performed for a separate and distinct medical reason, such as a ruptured appendix found during the exploration, and is documented as such. A National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) edit can be bypassed with an appropriate modifier (like 59 or an X-modifier) only if the procedures are truly separate and distinct. An incidental appendectomy is included in the exploratory laparotomy. However, if the appendectomy was performed for a distinct, medically necessary reason (like acute appendicitis), it can be reported separately with a modifier.
  14. What is the primary purpose of the Office of Inspector General (OIG) Work Plan?
    Answer: To identify areas of potential fraud, waste, and abuse in federal healthcare programs that the OIG will target for review. The OIG publishes a Work Plan annually that outlines its audit and enforcement priorities. It identifies specific services and practice areas within Medicare and other federal healthcare programs that it believes are at high risk for improper payments, fraud, and abuse.
  15. The concept of "medical necessity" is a critical component of compliance. In the context of coding and billing, medical necessity is primarily established by:
    Answer: The diagnosis code(s) supporting the reason the procedure or service was performed. Medical necessity establishes the link between the service provided (the procedure code) and the patient's condition (the diagnosis code). The diagnosis must justify the service according to accepted standards of medical practice. Payers review this linkage to determine if a service should be covered.
  16. A physician practice consistently bills Evaluation and Management (E/M) services at a higher level than what is supported by the medical record documentation. An internal audit reveals a pattern of this behavior, which the physician knowingly instructed the coder to perform to increase revenue. What does this practice represent?
    Answer: Fraud This scenario describes fraud. Fraud is the intentional deception or misrepresentation that an individual knows to be false and that could result in some unauthorized benefit. The keywords "knowingly instructed" indicate intent, which is the key element that distinguishes fraud from abuse. Upcoding is a classic example of healthcare fraud.
  17. The office staff at a neurology practice obtains a signed ABN from a Medicare patient for a service that may be denied for medical necessity. However, they forget to give the patient a copy of the signed form. Is the ABN considered valid?
    Answer: No, the ABN is not considered valid unless the patient receives a copy. For an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) to be considered valid, several criteria must be met. These include that the notice must be properly completed, signed by the beneficiary or their representative, and a copy must be given to the beneficiary before the service is provided. Failure to provide a copy invalidates the notice.
  18. An office is scheduling a Medicare patient for a diagnostic test. Which of the following situations would be a "triggering event" that necessitates providing the patient with an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)?
    Answer: The patient's diagnosis code does not support medical necessity for the test according to a Local Coverage Determination (LCD). A triggering event for an ABN occurs when a provider has reason to believe a service, which is otherwise covered, may be denied by Medicare because it is not considered reasonable and necessary. An LCD that indicates non-coverage for a specific diagnosis is a common example of such a reason, triggering the need to inform the patient of potential financial liability.
  19. A medical coder, new to a specialty, notices that the physician routinely bills for a comprehensive metabolic panel for every patient, regardless of their presenting problem. When asked, the physician states it's "just easier" than selecting individual tests. This practice results in unnecessary costs to the Medicare program. This is an example of:
    Answer: Abuse This is an example of abuse. Abuse involves actions that are inconsistent with sound medical, fiscal, or business practices, and result in an unnecessary cost or reimbursement for services that are not medically necessary. While not intentionally deceptive, the physician's disregard for medical necessity and proper coding constitutes abuse.
  20. While state laws and Medicare regulations may have specific record retention requirements, what does the HIPAA Privacy Rule mandate regarding the retention of medical records?
    Answer: HIPAA does not specify a retention period for medical records but does require retention of HIPAA-related policies for 6 years. The HIPAA Privacy Rule does not establish a specific retention period for medical records. Instead, state laws and Medicare regulations dictate these requirements. HIPAA does mandate that covered entities retain required HIPAA documentation, such as policies and procedures and complaint dispositions, for six years from the date of its creation or the date when it last was in effect, whichever is later.

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